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serg [7]
3 years ago
10

How can you can find the rate in pounds per hour?

Mathematics
2 answers:
zzz [600]3 years ago
7 0

Step-by-step explanation:

So first 40 hrs/week times 52 weeks/or year=2,080 or $100,00 divided by 2,080 equals roughly 50 dollars per hr

Aliun [14]3 years ago
6 0

Answer: by multiply until you get your sum

Step-by-step explanation:

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The height of a rectangle is 2 less than it’s base x if the perimeter of the rectangle is no less than 36 cm, find the base
Inessa [10]
10 I think because 10+10+8+8=36 and 8 is 2 less than 10
7 0
3 years ago
McKenzie sells textbooks. She receives 7% on her first $1,000 in sales and 15% on the balance of her sales. How much would she e
Alisiya [41]

The commission would be $2095.

Step-by-step explanation:

Given,

Commission on first $1000 = 7%

Amount of commission = 0.07*1000 = $70

Worth of sold items = $14,500

We will subtract $1000 from it.

Balance = 14500-1000 = $13500

Commission on balance = 15% = 0.15

Amount of commission = 0.15*13500

Amount of commission = $2025

Total commission = 70+2025 = $2095

The commission would be $2095.

Keywords: percentage, subtraction

Learn more about subtraction at:

  • brainly.com/question/10387593
  • brainly.com/question/10402163

#LearnwithBrainly

3 0
3 years ago
Suppose you make hot chocolate. It's too hot to drink, so you put it in the freezer to cool it off. If the original temperature
grandymaker [24]

Answer:

B.) 132.56 degrees

Step-by-step explanation:

8 0
2 years ago
When a dummy variable is included in a regression model that has one numerical independent variable, what assumption do you need
sukhopar [10]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

You need to assume that the slope between the dependent Varian and the numerical independent variable is zero.

In regression analysis, to find the effect of one independent variable on the dependent variable, there has to be no interference from the other independent variables whether they be categorical (dummy) or numerical independent variables.

A dummy variable is one which takes on the value of 0 or 1, to represent the absence or presence (respectively) of a given category which is expected to influence the dependent variable.

When a dummy independent variable is included in a regression model, to know the effect of that dummy or category (e.g. day =1, night =0) on the dependent variable, the influence of the numerical independent variable has to be removed temporarily.

In a regression equation,

Y=a+bX+cK

Y is the dependent variable

a is the intercept on the vertical axis on the graph

b is the slope between the dependent variable Y and the independent numerical variable X

c is the slope between the dependent variable Y and the dummy variable K

3 0
3 years ago
Probe that:<br><img src="https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%20%5Csec%20%5Calpha%20%20%5Csqrt%7B1%20-%20%20%5Csin%28%20%7B%7D%5E%7B2%7D%20%
Nataly [62]

Step-by-step explanation:

<h3>\sec \alpha  \sqrt{1 -  \sin ^{2}   \alpha }  = 1</h3>

Prove the LHS

Using trigonometric identities

That's

<h3>\cos ^{2}  \alpha  = 1 -  \sin^{2}  \alpha</h3>

<u>Rewrite the expression</u>

We have

<h3>\sec \alpha  \sqrt{ \cos^{2} \alpha  }</h3>

<h3>\sqrt{ { \cos }^{2}  \alpha }  =  \cos \alpha</h3>

So we have

<h3>\sec  \alpha  \times  \cos \alpha</h3>

Using trigonometric identities

<h3>\sec \alpha  =  \frac{1}{ \cos \alpha }</h3>

<u>Rewrite the expression</u>

That's

<h3>\frac{1}{\cos \alpha }  \times  \cos \alpha</h3>

Reduce the expression with cos a

We have the final answer as

<h2>1</h2>

As proven

Hope this helps you

7 0
3 years ago
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