Explanation:
upholding the exclusion of Japanese Americans from the West Coast Military Area during World War II.
B. A policy designed to improve relations between the U.S and Latin American countries
I can't really answer your question (as I don't really know enough about 18th century France), but I just want to clear up an (understandable) misconception about Feudalism in your question.
The French revolution was adamant and explicit in its abolition of 'feudalism'. However, the 'feudalism' it was talking about had nothing at all to do with medieval 'feudalism' (which, of course, never existed). What the revolutionaries had in mind, in my own understanding of it, was the legally privileged position of the aristocracy/2nd estate. This type of 'feudalism' was a creation of early modern lawyers and, as a result, is better seen as a product of the early-modern monarchical nation-state, than as a precursor to it. It has nothing to do with the pre-nation-state medieval period, or with the Crusades.
Eighteenth-century buffs, feel free to chip in if I've misrepresented anything, as this is mostly coming from my readings about the historiographical development of feudalism, not any revolutionary France expertise, so I may well have misinterpreted things.
The first amendment rights which were violated when Margie was arrested include religion and speech.
<h3>What is Right?</h3>
This is referred to as ethical principles of freedom which an individual should have.
Margie was arrested on the basis of being a murderer because of her religious background and speech which linked her to the crime but was later found out not to be the culprit.
Read more about Right here brainly.com/question/2217700
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