Answer:
Variable overhead rate variance = Actual Variable overhead incurred - Actual Hours of Input, at Standard Rate
Variable overhead rate variance = ($4.5*18800 - $77,700)
Variable overhead rate variance = $6,900 Favorable
Variable overhead efficiency variance = Actual Hours of Input, at Standard Rate - Standard Hours allowed for Actual Output at Standard Rate
Variable overhead efficiency variance = (12000*1.5 - $18,800)*$4.5 =
Variable overhead efficiency variance = $3,600 Unfavorable
Variable overhead cost variance = Actual Variable overhead incurred - Standard Hours allowed for Actual Output at Standard Rate
Variable overhead cost variance = (12000*1.5*$4.5) - $77,700
Variable overhead cost variance = $3,300 Favorable
Answer:
I'm confused on what your asking
28875
Explanation:
Rosa borrowed $26400 for remodeling of her kitchen on home equity loan.
Promissory note bearing interest of 12 and 1/2% or 12.5% or 0.125.
Total amount Roma has to pay in the due which means the end of <em>18 months.</em>
- 1st Principal amount is $26400 = P
- 2nd Rate of interest is 12 and 1/5 %. = R
- 3rd Time days/month/week taken to pay the total amount. =T
- P= $26400 , R = 12.5 % and time is 18 months
<u>Adjustments:-</u>
- R = .125 T = 18/24 (calculated on a monthly basis, 1 year has 12 months)
- PRT = Interest on a due date
- I = 26400 * .125 * 0.75 = 2475
- 2475 interest charged for 18 months
- Total amount Roma has to pay in the due date ?
<em>If the marketing managers at Peyton Bike's Inc. decide to sell each bike at a price lower than $2,000 per unit</em><em>, a shortage of bikes will be created.</em>
<h3>Why are bikes in short supply?</h3>
As a result, additional problems like plant shutdowns and disruptions as well as the unheard-of increase in bike orders during the peak of the coronavirus pandemic have added to the supply chain difficulties. The sector has never before experienced such a massive increase in demand as it has over the past two years.
learn more about<em> </em>shortage of bikes here <u>brainly.com/question/13000057</u>
#SPJ4
Answer:
C. 2.45
Explanation:
Pv of cash flow
1000x9%/(1+0.12)
= 90/1.12
= 80.36
Weight = 1
Weighted pv of cash flow = 80.36
Pv of cash flow
= 1000x9%/(1+0.12)²
= 90/1.2544
= 71.75
Weight = 2
Weighted pv of cash flow = 71.75x2
= 143.5
Pv of cash flow
= (1000+1000*9%)/(1+0.12)³
= 1090/1.404928
= 775.84
Weight = 3
Weighted pv of cash flow
= 775.84x3
= 2327.52
Total pv of cash flow = 80.36+71.75+775.84
= 927.95
Total weight of cash flow pv =
80.36+143.5+2327.52
= 2551.38
Duration = weighted pv/pv
= 2551.38/927.95
= 2.75
Modified duration =
Duration/1+0.12
= 2.75/1.12
= 2.45
