Answer:
9
Step-by-step explanation:
x² − 36 = 5x
x² − 5x − 36 = 0
(x − 9) (x + 4) = 0
x = 9 or -4
The probabability of winning on at least 1 bet is equal to 1 less the probaility of not winning on either of the 6 bets.
The probability of not wining on any bet is independent of winning or not winning on any of the bets, so the combined probability is calculated as the product of each individual probability.
Each indivitual probability of not winning the is:
(number of not winning outcomes) / (number of possible outcomes) = 37 / 38.
Then, the combined probability of not winning the six times is: (1/38)*(37/38)*(37/38)*(37/38)*(37/38)*(37/38) =(37/38)^6
Therefore, the probability of winning at least one bet is:
= 1 - (37/38)^6 ≈ 1 - 0.973684 ≈ 0.03.
Answer: 0.03.
Answer:
33.6
you are welcome :)
Step-by-step explanation:
The second answer.
You have the first prize, x.
Then you have the second prize, which is x - 50.
Then you have the third prize, which is x - 50 -50, or x - 100.
So the total money is:
x + (x-50) + (x-100).
This answer uses NMF, which you can find out about on my profile:
Preliminary work:
Following the BIDMAS order of operations, we can calculate part of it already, and that's the 2•4, which equals 8.
Therefore, the equation now reads:
8+x = y
x = 5:
8+5 = 13
13 ≠ 16
13 ≠ y
x = 4:
8+4 = 12
12 = 12
12 = y
Therefore, the pair is (4, 12)
