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3 years ago

A person earns $187.42 before deductions for 3 days' work. What is the rate of pay per hour assuming 8 hours of work per day?

Mathematics

1 answer:

gavmur [86]3 years ago

8 0

8 hours = 1 day

24 hours = 3 days

187.42/24

Round it up and it will give you $7.80/hour

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350 key in a bin 10%are yellow 3/5 are green how many are in the bin

nadezda [96]

3 divided by 5 is 0.6.
0.6 x 350 is 210.

It is 210..

3 0

3 years ago

In the United States, voters who are neither Democrat nor Republican are called Independent. It is believed that 11% of voters a

Radda [10]

Answer:

a) 0.0214 = 2.14% probability that none of the people are Independent.

b) 0.8516 = 85.16% probability that fewer than 6 are Independent.

c) 0.8914 = 89.14% probability that more than 2 people are Independent.

Step-by-step explanation:

For each people, there are only two possible outcomes. Either they are independent, or they are not. For each person asked, the probability of them being Independent voters is the same. This means that we use the binomial probability distribution to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

$P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}$

In which $C_{n,x}$ is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

$C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}$

And p is the probability of X happening.

It is believed that 11% of voters are Independent.

This means that $p = 0.11$

A survey asked 33 people to identify themselves as Democrat, Republican, or Independent.

This means that $n = 33$

A. What is the probability that none of the people are Independent?

This is P(X = 0). So

$P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}$

$P(X = 0) = C_{33,0}.(0.11)^{0}.(0.89)^{33} = 0.0214$

0.0214 = 2.14% probability that none of the people are Independent.

B. What is the probability that fewer than 6 are Independent?

This is

$P(X < 6) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2) + P(X = 3) + P(X = 4) + P(X = 5)$

$P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}$

$P(X = 0) = C_{33,0}.(0.11)^{0}.(0.89)^{33} = 0.0214$

$P(X = 1) = C_{33,1}.(0.11)^{1}.(0.89)^{32} = 0.0872$

$P(X = 2) = C_{33,2}.(0.11)^{2}.(0.89)^{31} = 0.1724$

$P(X = 3) = C_{33,3}.(0.11)^{3}.(0.89)^{30} = 0.2202$

$P(X = 4) = C_{33,4}.(0.11)^{4}.(0.89)^{29} = 0.2041$

$P(X = 5) = C_{33,5}.(0.11)^{5}.(0.89)^{28} = 0.1463$

$P(X < 6) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2) + P(X = 3) + P(X = 4) + P(X = 5) = 0.0214 + 0.0872 + 0.1724 + 0.2202 + 0.2041 + 0.1463 = 0.8516$

0.8516 = 85.16% probability that fewer than 6 are Independent.

C. What is the probability that more than 2 people are Independent?

This is:

$P(X \geq 2) = 1 - P(X < 2)$

In which

$P(X < 2) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1)$

$P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}$

$P(X = 0) = C_{33,0}.(0.11)^{0}.(0.89)^{33} = 0.0214$

$P(X = 1) = C_{33,1}.(0.11)^{1}.(0.89)^{32} = 0.0872$

$P(X < 2) = 0.0214 + 0.0872 = 0.1086$

$P(X \geq 2) = 1 - P(X < 2) = 1 - 0.1086 = 0.8914$

0.8914 = 89.14% probability that more than 2 people are Independent.

8 0

3 years ago

Solve this equation <br> 12y = 30

svp [43]

Answer:

hI!!

Y = 5/2

Step-by-step explanation:

Let's solve your equation step-by-step.

12y=30

Step 1: Divide both sides by 12.

12y/12 30/12

7 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Can anyone solve this x + 2 ( x + 2 + ( 2 x − 8 ) ) = x + 1 + ( 2 x − 5 ) x + 2 ( x + 2 + ( 2 x - 8 ) ) = x + 1 + ( 2 x - 5 )

r-ruslan [8.4K]

Answer:

simplify the equation to solve it, remove unnessecary parentheses and spaces.

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3 years ago

HELP I NEED HELP ASAP

poizon [28]

Answer: Quora. It will help, trust me or search it up

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