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charle [14.2K]
3 years ago
11

What does it mean to say that "banks create money"?

Business
1 answer:
vova2212 [387]3 years ago
8 0
The process wereby banks make loans equal to amount of their excess recerves and create new checkbook money is known as multiple deposit creation each time a bank recieves a deposit it sets aside some of it to meet reserve requirements and may lend an amount equal to the remaing excess reserves 
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A revolving credit agreement is a formal line of credit. The firm must generally pay a fee on the unused balance of the committe
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Answer:

a. True

Explanation:

A revolving credit agreement is a line of credit, that is, a default limit that a firm can use to borrow money as much as possible until this limit is reached. The firm will have to pay the bank for a commitment to lend or extend such funds. The bank will also put some factors about the firm's ability to pay into consideration before revolving credit can be used.

8 0
3 years ago
Which of the following is true about multicollinearity?
Komok [63]

Answer:

d. It is best measured using the statistic variance inflation factor (VIF).

Explanation:

Multicollinearity is an important issue in multiple regression model, having many independent/ explanatory variables. Multicollinearity is the situation in which two or more independent variables are highly correlated. It is problematic because it increases the standard error of independent variable coefficient & undermines its statistical significance

Variance Inflation Factor [VIF] is a check & corrective measure of multicollinearity.  

  • VIF as a multicollinearity check : It quantifies the correlation between one explanatory variable with other explanatory variables.VIF = 1 implies there is no multicollinearity (correlation between independent variables); VIF upto 5  implies there is moderate multicollinearity (correlation between independent variables). VIF > 5 implies high multicollinearity (correlation between independent variables)
  • VIF as a multicollinearity correction : Calculating  Var (\beta j ) = σ^2 / [TSS j (1 - R^2j)] ; where TSS = total sum of square of variable j , σ^2 =  j variance, R^2 j = R^2 from regressing all other independent variable on variable j
3 0
3 years ago
On january​ 1, 2017​ hillop, inc. had total assets of​ $370,000. during the​ year, the company purchased new machinery worth​ $8
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<span>asset turnover ratio is the ratio of the value of a company's sales or revenues generated relative to the value of its assets. The Asset Turnover ratio can often be used as an indicator of the efficiency with which a company is deploying its assets in generating revenue. Given that the sales is 60k and the value of the asset is 370k, the ratio is simply the sales / value of assets which is 60/(370-88).</span>
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3 years ago
The ways you act, think, and feel describe your _____.
Bas_tet [7]
Personality traits... i think

have a good day
4 0
4 years ago
Colgate-Palmolive Company has just paid an annual dividend of . Analysts are predicting dividends to grow by per year over the n
denis23 [38]

The amount of $97.85 is the price that​ dividend-discount model predict that Colgate stock should sell for​ today

<u>Given Information</u>

Current dividend (D0) = $1.59

   

Dividend payments for next five years includes:

D1 = 1.59 +0.18

D1 = 1.77

   

D2 = 1.77 +0.18

D2 = 1.95

D3 = 1.95 +0.18

D3 = 2.13

D4 = 2.13 +0.18

D4 =2.31

D5 = 2.31 +0.18

D5 =2.49

Year  Cash Flow         PVF at 8.1%        Present value

1            1.77                0.92506938        1.637372803    

2           1.95                0.855753358      1.668719048

3           2.13                0.791631229        1.686174517    

4           2.31                0.73231381           1.691644901    

5           2.49               0.677441082        <u>1.686828295</u>

Present value of Dividends                   <u>8.3707</u>

PV of remaining dividends in 5 year = D5 x (1+g)/(Ke-g))      

PV of remaining dividends in 5 year = 2.49(1+0.061)/(0.081-0.061)    

PV of remaining dividends in 5 year = $132.0945

Given that g=6.1%, ke=8.1%      

PV of remaining dividends in year = 0 = PV of the remaining dividends in year 5* 1/(1+0.081)^5

= 132.0945 * 1/(1+0.081)^5    

= $89.48624      

As per dividend-discount model, Colgate stock should sell for​ today = PV of Dividends till 5th year + PV of Remaining Dividend at t=0

= $89.48624 + $8.3707    

= $97.8531

= $97.85

Hence, the amount of $97.85 is the price that​ dividend-discount model predict that Colgate stock should sell for​ today.

Read more about dividend

<em>brainly.com/question/3161471</em>

8 0
2 years ago
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