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romanna [79]
3 years ago
10

stock that has a current price of $25.00, a beta of 1.25, and a dividend yield of 6%. If the Treasury bill yield is 5% and the m

arket portfolio is expected to return 14%, what should MUSS’s stock sell for at the end of an investor's two year investment horizon?
Business
1 answer:
photoshop1234 [79]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

$30.2067

Explanation:

From the given question, using the dividend discount model

V_0 = \dfrac{D_1}{r - g}

where:

r is the Expected return on stock and be calculated as:

Expected return on stock = Risk free rate + Beta × (Expected Market Return - Risk free rate)

Expected return on stock = 5% + 1.25 × (14% - 5%) = 16.25%

However, the current price in this process will b used as the dividend price for all future expenses.

Dividend Yield = Current Dividend/The Share Price

Current dividend D0 = 6% × $25.00 = $1.50

D₁ = D₀ × (1 + g)

D₁ = 1.5 × (1 + g)

Thus, we can now employ the use of the growth dividend model (constant) to determine the value of g as follows:

25 = \dfrac{1.5 \times (1 + g)}{0.1625 - g}

By cross multiply, we have:

4.0625 - 25g = 1.5 + 1.5g

collect like terms, we have:

4.0625 - 1.5 = 1.5g + 25g

2.5625 = 26.5g

Divide both sides by 26.5, we have:

2.5625/26.5 = 26.5g/26.5

g = 9.67%

Similarly, suppose the value for the second year-end to be Y₂;

Then the constant growth dividend model can be computed as:

Y_2 = \dfrac{D_3}{r - g}

where;

D₃ = D₂ × (1 + g)

D₂ × (1 + g) = D₁ × (1 + g) × (1 + g)

D₁ × (1 + g) × (1 + g) = D₀ × (1 + g) × (1 + g) × (1 + g)

D₁ × (1 + g) × (1 + g) = D₀ × (1 + g) × (1 + g) × (1 + g)  = D₀ × (1 + g) × 3

D₃ = 1.5 × (1 + 9.67%) × 3

D₃ = $1.9876

Finally:

Y_2 = \dfrac{D_3}{r - g}

Y_2 = \dfrac{1.9876}{0.1625 - 0.0967}

Y₂ = $30.2067

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Answer and Explanation:

The computation of the MIRR is shown below:

But before that terminal cash flow required to calculate

<u> Year       Cash Flows    FV Factor Formula      Terminal Value </u>

<u>                                                                       (Cash Flow × FV Factor) </u>

0             ($1,000)    

1               $450                 1.21                (1 +10%)^(2)      $545

2             $450                   1.1                 (1 + 10%)^(1)     $495

3            $450                   1                       1                 $450

Terminal Cash Flow                                                      $1,490

now the MIRR is

MIRR = \sqrt[n]{\frac{terminal\ cash\ flow}{initial\ investment} } - 1\\\\= \sqrt[3]{\frac{\$1,490}{\$1,000} } - 1

= 14.22%

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3 years ago
Leach Inc. experienced the following events for the first two years of its operations:
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Answer:

a.1) <u>year 1</u>

Issued $10,000 of common stock for cash.

Dr cash 10,000

    Cr common stock 10,000

Provided $78,000 of services on account.

Dr accounts receivable 78,000

    Cr service revenue 78,000

Provided $36,000 of services and received cash.

Dr cash 36,000

    Cr service revenue 36,000

Collected $69,000 cash from accounts receivable.

Dr cash 69,000

    Cr accounts receivable 69,000

Paid $38,000 of salaries expense for the year.

Dr wages expense 38,000

    Cr cash 38,000

Adjusted the accounting records to reflect uncollectible accounts expense for the year.  Leach estimates that 5 percent of the ending accounts receivable balance will be uncollectible.

Dr bad debt expense 450

    Cr accounts receivable 450

Closed the revenue account. Closed the expense account.

Dr service revenue 114,000

    Cr income summary 114,000

Dr income summary 38,450

    Cr wages expense 38,000

    Cr bad debt expense 450

Dr income summary 75,550

    Cr retained earnings 75,550

<h2>b.1) income statement year 1</h2>

Service revenue           $114,000

Expenses:

  • Wages $38,000
  • Bad debt $450    <u>($38,450)</u>

Net income                   $75,550

<h2>balance sheet year 1</h2>

Assets:

Cash $77,000

Accounts receivable $8,550

total assets                                           $85,550

Equity:

Common stock $10,000

Retained earnings $75,550

total equity                                            $85,550

<h2>statement of cash flows year 1</h2>

Cash flows form operating activities:

Net income                                      $75,550

adjustments:

Increase in accounts receivable     <u>($8,550)</u>

net cash from operating activities  $67,000

Cash flow from financing activities:

Common stocks issued                   <u>$10,000</u>

Net cash increase                           $77,000

beginning cash balance                <u>          $0</u>

Ending cash balance                      $87,000

a.2) <u>Year 2:</u>

Wrote off an uncollectible account for $650.

Dr bad debt expense 650

    Cr accounts receivable 650

Provided $88,000 of services on account.

Dr accounts receivable 88,000

    Cr service revenue 88,000

Provided $32,000 of services and collected cash.

Dr cash 32,000

    Cr service revenue 32,000

Collected $81,000 cash from accounts receivable.

Dr cash 81,000

    Cr accounts receivable 81,000

Paid $65,000 of salaries expense for the year.

Dr wages expense 65,000

    Cr cash 65,000

Adjusted the accounts to reflect uncollectible accounts expense for the year.  Leach estimates that 5 percent of the ending accounts receivable balance will be uncollectible.

Dr bad debt expense 745

    Cr accounts receivable 745

<h2>b.2) income statement year 2</h2>

Service revenue             $120,000

Expenses:

  • Wages $65,000
  • Bad debt $1,395    <u>($38,450)</u>

Net income                      $53,605

<h2>balance sheet year 2</h2>

Assets:

Cash $125,000

Accounts receivable $14,155

total assets                                           $139,155

Equity:

Common stock $10,000

Retained earnings $129,155

total equity                                            $139,155

<h2>statement of cash flows year 2</h2>

Cash flows form operating activities:

Net income                                      $53,605

adjustments:

Increase in accounts receivable     <u>($5,605)</u>

net cash from operating activities  $48,000

Net cash increase                           $48,000

beginning cash balance                <u> $77,000</u>

Ending cash balance                    $125,000

c) net realizable value of accounts receivable at year 1 = $8,550

net realizable value of accounts receivable at year 2 = $14,155

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Answer:

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Explanation:

The double-declining-balance(DDB) method entails computing depreciation of an asset at an accelerated rate. This method is employed when the asset loses value quickly and is expected to generate more revenue at the earlier stages of its useful life. The depreciation is higher at the beginning and lower close to the end of the asset's useful life. The depreciation is computed as follows:

Depreciation = 2 * straight line depreciation percentage * Book value at the beginning of the period

Machine cost: $75, 000

Residual Value: $5, 000

Estimated Life: 4 years/18, 000 hours

Straight line depreciation percentage : 100/4 = 25%

Depreciation Year 1 on DDB =  2 * 25% * $75, 000

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Depreciation Year 2 on DDB =  2 * 25% * ($75, 000 -$37, 500)

                                               = $18, 750

       

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Answer:

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Explanation:

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