Answer: C) Frank is an outside director on Lofloy's board of directors.
Explanation:
As Frank has a full time employment position as a senior manager at Spinson Locomotives, he is most likely an outside director on Lofloy's board of directors.
Outside directors are those members of the board in a company that are not employed by the company which Frank isn't.
Outside directors like Frank are thought to be more impartial in decision making and for this reason companies are usually required to have a certain number of them sitting on the board.
Answer:
Bond Price = $580.2640476 rounded off to $580.26
Explanation:
A zero coupon bond is a kind of bond that does not pay interest to the bond holder like other bonds. Instead it is offered at a discount price and pays the par value at maturity. The discount price is calculated using a certain rate which can also be called the implied interest rate on this zero coupon bond. The formula to calculate the price of the zero coupon bond is,
Bond Price = Par Value / (1 + r)^t
Where,
- r is the interest rate or the discount rate
- t is the number of periods to maturity
Bond Price = 1000 / (1+0.115)^5
Bond Price = $580.2640476 rounded off to $580.26
Explanation:
The adjusting entry is as follows
On January 31
Unearned revenue A/c Dr $3,500
To Magazine subscription revenue A/c $3,500
(Being the unearned revenue is recorded)
The computation is shown below:
= Sale value of annual subscriptions ÷ total number of months in a year
= $42,000 ÷ 12 months
= $3,500
The best and most correct answer among the choices provided by your question is the second choice or letter B. They could put up a partnership which <span>might best suit their growth.
</span>
A partnership<span> is a single business where two or more people share ownership. Each </span>partner<span> contributes to all aspects of the business, including money, property, labor or skill. In return, each </span>partner<span> shares in the profits and losses of the business.</span>
I hope my answer has come to your help. Thank you for posting your question here in Brainly.
Answer:
Explanation:
Let's first determine the free cash flow of the firm
Particulars Years
1 2 3
EBIT 540 680 750
<u>Tax at 36% (0.36*540) (0.36*680) (0.36*750) </u>
Less: 345.6 435.2 480
Net Capital -
Spending 150 170 190
<u>Change in NWC 70 75 80 </u>
Less: 125.6 190.2 210
The terminal value at the end of T =(3 years) is:
= 2011.26
Finally, the value of the firm can be computed as follows:
Years Free Cash Flow PVIF PV
1 125.6 0.6589 107.88
2 190.2 0.7377 140.31
3 210 0.6336 133.06
<u>Terminal Value 2011.26 0.6336 1294.33 </u>
<u>Value of the firm ⇒ $1655.58</u>
