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LenKa [72]
3 years ago
6

Martinez Manufacturing applies overhead based on direct labor hours. The company estimates that their overhead for the year will

be $180,000, and that they will use 72,000 direct labor hours. During the year, Martinez Manufacturing actually used 75,000 direct labor hours and actual overhead costs were $190,000. At the end of the year, manufacturing overhead was: Overapplied by $2,500. Overapplied by $10,000. Underapplied by $2,500. Underapplied by $10,000.
Business
1 answer:
aev [14]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

The correct answer is C: underapplied by $2,500

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Martinez Manufacturing applies overhead based on direct labor hours.

The company estimates that their overhead for the year will be $180,000 and that they will use 72,000 direct labor hours.

During the year, Martinez Manufacturing used 75,000 direct labor hours and actual overhead costs were $190,000

We need to calculate if the overhead was under or over applied and in what amount.

Predetermined overhead rate= total estimated manufacturing overhead for the period/ total amount of allocation base

Predetermined overhead rate= 180000/72000= $2.5 an hour

Now, we can calculate the amount of overhead allocated:

Overhead allocated= 75000 hours*2.5= $187,500

Over/under applied= actual overhead - allocated overhead= 190,000 - 185,500= $2,500 underapplied

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Vesnalui [34]

Answer:

1.$2,035,692

2.$1,091,248

3.8.24 years

4.22.97%

Explanation:

Hunter Valley

1. Computation for the average annual net cash inflow from the expansion.

Formula for Average annual net cash inflow from operation

= Numbers of skiers day * Contribution margin per skier

(122*162) * ($245 - $142)

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2.Computation for the average annual operating income from the expansion

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= $2,035,692 - ($9,000,000 - $500,000) / 9

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3.Computation for the Payback period

Payback period = Initial investment / Annual cash inflows

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= 8.24 years

4.Computation for the ARR

ARR = Average annual income / Average investment

Hence:

Average investment = (Cost +Residual value) / 2

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ARR = $1,091,248 / $4,750,000

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4 0
3 years ago
Why might a country choose to devalue its currency? to please its trading partners to encourage exports to encourage imports to
Hatshy [7]

The major reason a country might choose to devalue its currency is to encourage exports.

<h3>What do you mean by Devaluation?</h3>

Devaluation refers to the downward movement in the value of the country's currency. The government that issues the currency has the power to devalue its currency.

Devaluating the currency reduces the cost of a country's exports and reduces trade deficits. For encouraging exports, a country chooses to devalue the currency.

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6 0
2 years ago
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timurjin [86]

Answer:

$53,240

Explanation:

We know that,

Break even point = Fixed cost ÷ contribution margin ratio

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So, the fixed cost = $290,400 × 55% = $159,720

As the variable expense is 45% and we assume the sales is 100%, so the contribution ratio would be 100% - 45% = 55%

Now the margin of safety equal to

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4 0
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Answer:

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They include transportation costs, feeding costs and lodging costs.

Cost of entertaining clients is however not considered a travel expense.

5 0
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