Answer:
A. Glaucoma
Explanation:
Elevated intraocular pressure is a concern in people with ocular hypertension because it is one of the main risk factors for glaucoma. High pressure inside the eye is caused by an imbalance in the production and drainage of fluid in the eye (aqueous humor).
The weight-loss activity that should be classified as unsupported is the targeted fat removal.
<h3>What is weight-loss activity?</h3>
Weight-loss activity is the type of structure activity that helps to reduce the weight and fat accumulation in the body.
When an individual wants to lose weight, the supported healthy activities include:
- prescription weight loss drugs,
- eating low cholesterol meals such as vegetables.
Fat removal is unhealthy and can put the life of the individual in danger and complications.
Learn more about cholesterol here:
brainly.com/question/523979
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Answer:
<em>Smoking is one of the biggest causes of death and illness in the UK. Every year around 78,000 people in the UK die from smoking, with many more living with debilitating smoking-related illnesses. Smoking increases your risk of developing more than 50 serious health conditions.</em>
Explanation:
The reasons that it decreased.
Correct option is A, symptom diary for two months.
The premenstrual syndrome has a considerably more severe variant known as premenstrual dysphoric disorder (PMDD). Women who are childbearing age may be impacted. It's a serious, long-lasting medical problem that need attention and care.
In certain cases, medications and lifestyle modifications might help control symptoms. PMDD's precise etiology is unknown. It can be a strange response to the regular hormone fluctuations brought on by the menstrual cycle. Further history gathering using a menstrual calendar identifies the cyclical pattern of PMS or PMDD symptoms and aids in determining the best course of treatment.
While dietary modifications could be beneficial, it's first crucial to make the diagnosis. There is no need for a mental evaluation or an anxiolytic medication.
Here is another question with an answer similar to this about premenstrual dysphoric disorder: brainly.com/question/14630878
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Question correction:
A 27-year-old G1P0 woman complains of mood swings and fatigue in the week prior to her menstrual period. These symptoms have worsened over the past six months. Some months the symptoms are so severe she misses several days of work. Her medical history is otherwise unremarkable and a physical examination is normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in this patient's management?
A. Symptom diary for two months
B. Dietary changes
C. Anxiolytic agent
D. Psychiatric consultation
E. Pelvic ultrasound
