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elena-s [515]
3 years ago
8

Suppose the diameter of a circle is 16 units. What is its circumference?

Mathematics
1 answer:
Sergeu [11.5K]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

3.14 x 16 = 50,24unit

Step-by-step explanation:

The circumference = π x the diameter of the circle (Pi multiplied by d.

Simply divide the circumference by the π, then you will have the diameter of the circle.

You might be interested in
If the angles are represented in degrees, find both angles: \cos(3x+13)=\sin(2x+42) cos(3x+13)=sin(2x+42)
Sphinxa [80]

Answer:

cos34°

sin56°

Step-by-step explanation:

Sin(2x+42)= sin90-(3x+13)

Sin(2x+42) = sin(90-13-3x)

Sin(2x+42) = sin(77-3x)

2x + 42 = 77-3x

5x. = 35

X = 7

If x = 7

cos(3x+13) = cos((3*7)+13)

cos(3x+13) = cos(21+13)

cos(3x+13)= cos34

And

sin(2x+42) = sin((2*7)+42)

sin(2x+42)= sin (14+42)

sin(2x+42) = sin56

4 0
3 years ago
(picture included) brainliest
Dimas [21]

Step-by-step explanation:

118 is the answer 238-120 = 118

5 0
3 years ago
What is the probability of these events when we randomly select a permutation of {1,2, ..., n} where n≥4? a) 1 precedes 2 c) 1 i
Paraphin [41]

Answer:

a) 1/2

b) 1/n

c) 1/4

Step-by-step explanation:

a) For each permutation, either 1 precedes 2 or 2 precedes 1. For each permutation in which 1 precedes 2, we can swap 1 and 2 to obtain a permutation in which 2 preceds 1. Thus, half of the total permutations will involve in 1 preceding 2, hence, the probability for a permutation having 1 before 2 is 1/2.

c) If 2 is at the start of the permutation, then it is impossible for 1 to be before 2. If that is not the case, then 1 has a probability of 1/n-1 to be exactly in the position before 2. We can divide in 2 cases using the theorem of total probability,

P( 1 immediately preceds 2) = P (1 immediately precedes 2 | 2 is at position 1) * P(2 is at position 1) + P(1 immediately precedes 2 | 2 is not at position 1) * P(2 is not at position 1) = 0 * 1/n + (1/n-1)*(n-1/n) = 1/n.

d) We can divide the total of permutations in 4 different groups with equal cardinality:

  • Those in which n precedes 1 and n-1 precedes 2
  • those in which n precedes 1 and 2 precedes n-1
  • those in which 1 precedes n and n-1 precedes 2
  • those in which 1 precedes n and 2 precedes n-1

All this groups have equal cardinality because we can obtain any element from one group from another by making a permutations between 1 and n and/or 2 and n-1.

This means that the total amount of favourable cases (elements of the first group) are a quarter of the total, hence, the probability of the event is 1/4.

3 0
3 years ago
Solve by quadratic formula. x squared plus x plus 1 = 0
Tasya [4]

Remember that the quadratic formula is: \dfrac{-b \pm \sqrt{b^2 - 4ac}}{2a}.


a stands for the coefficient of the first term, the one associated with the x^2, b stands for the coefficient of the second term, the one associated with x, and c stands for the value of the constant.


In x^2 + x + 1 = 0, our a-value is 1, our b-value is also 1, and our c-value is also 1.


Thus, when we plug in our values into our formula, we get the answer:

\dfrac{-1 \pm \sqrt{1^2 - 4(1)(1)}}{2(1)} = \dfrac{-1 \pm \sqrt{-3}}{2}


Simplifying this answer using i = \sqrt{-1}, we get our final answer of:

\boxed{x = \dfrac{-1 \pm i\sqrt{3}}{2}}

5 0
4 years ago
What is the slope of the line that passes through each points (5,3), (6,9)
77julia77 [94]
You do 9-3/6-5 and that is 3/1 so the slope is 3 (y2-y1/x2-x1)
4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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