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Gnom [1K]
3 years ago
8

Anna owned a home with her sister as joint tenants with the rights of survivorship. The home was inherited by Anna and her siste

r from their mother. Anna died and is survived by her sister. Which of the following statements is correct? a. The full value of the home must be included on Part 2 of Schedule E, minus any consideration that the sister has furnished(and can prove) b. The full value of the home must be included on Part 2 of Schedule E regardless of any consideration the sister has furnished c One-half of the value of the home must be included on Part 2 of Schedule E d. One-half of the value of the home must be included on Part 2 of Schedule A
Business
2 answers:
Sonbull [250]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

D.one-half of the value of the home must be included on Part 2 of Schedule A

Explanation:

The rationale for this is that passed and she was  survived by her sister as a result only one-half qualifies of the jointly held home qualifies to be included on Part 2 of Schedule A

djyliett [7]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

d. One-half of the value of the home must be included on Part 2 of Schedule A

Explanation:

Justify incorrect answer:  

It is not correct to take the full value of home to be included in Part 2 of schedule E. Dwelling unit alone should be taken.

Owning part interest only should be included if partly owned. It is irrespective of consideration furnished by sister.

One half of home must be included. But it should not be included in part 2 of schedule A. Schedule A consists of public charity status.

Therefore, full value of home if partly owned, regardless of consideration, part 2 of schedule A is incorrect.

Determine the correct statement:

If only part of the property is owned or part interest is bared by a taxpayer, it should alone be reported. Income and expense is reported under schedule E. Any amount paid for repairs or depreciation can be deducted.

Therefore, one half of the home value should be included on part 2 of schedule E.

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H2Coast, an automobile​ manufacturer, produces​ fuel-efficient hybrid vehicles that are targeted toward​ high-end exotic-vehicle
Aleks [24]

Answer:

C. Psychographic

Explanation:

There are several ways to segment a market. The criteria to be used should serve to predict the behavior of the buyers.

Of the different criteria, psychographic behavioral variables are used when buying behavior is related to the personality or lifestyle of consumers, since they have different preferences and respond differently to offers.

In other words, people are grouped according to their lifestyle, activities, interests and opinions.

8 0
3 years ago
India has 3 GDP of 23,000 billion Indian rupees, and a population of 1.1 billion. Theexchange rate is 50 rupees per US. dollar.
vekshin1

Answer:

Indian rupee in US dollars = $418

Explanation:

given data

India GDP = 23,000 billion

exchange rate = 50 rupees per US

population = 1.1 billion

solution

we get here GDP per capita as

GDP per capita = India GDP ÷ population

GDP per capita  = \frac{23000}{1.1}  

GDP per capita  = 20909 rupees

so here we Convert Indian rupee in US dollars that is with exchange rate

Indian rupee in US dollars = GDP per capita  ÷ exchange rate

Indian rupee in US dollars = \frac{20909}{50}  

Indian rupee in US dollars = $418

7 0
3 years ago
Which of the following statements reflect negative outcomes known to result from work teams? Check all that apply.
diamong [38]
Answer: - if our team makes a bad decision, we’d all feel individually accountable for the decision.
I know this because I’m smart like that.
8 0
4 years ago
A planning budget called for 500 units to be produced and total direct labor cost of $7,500. Actual production was 600 units and
boyakko [2]

Spending variance is 300 Unfavourable.

SR = 7500 / 500 = 15

AR = 9300 / 600 = 15.5

Spending variance = (SR - AR ) AH

= (15 - 15.5 ) 600

= 300 Unfavourable.

Spending variance, also known as rate variance, is the difference between the actual amount of an expense and the budgeted amount. If you have a utility bill of $250 in January and you expect to incur an expense of $150, you have an unfavorable expense variance of $100.

Spending variance is the difference between the actual amount of an expense and the expected (or budgeted) amount. So if a company has spent $500 on utilities in January and plans to spend $400, the result is a $100 unwanted spending difference.

There are many variations in calculating the spending variance for different types of expenses, but the basic formula for this calculation is:

1) Actual Cost - Expected Cost = Expense Variance.

2) (Actual Variable Burden Rate - Projected Variable Burden Rate) x Work Hours = Variable Burden Cost Variance.

Learn more about Spending variance here: brainly.com/question/26082424

#SPJ4

7 0
2 years ago
Technology workers at TrustTech manage their own attendance. TrustTech has a policy in which the reason for the absence is not c
Debora [2.8K]

Answer:

The correct answer is letter "B": A disciplinary approach.

Explanation:

A disciplinary approach or traditional approach is an authoritarian punishment method characterized for being radical in front of faults but flexible in front of the absences of major problems. It best describes TrustTech absenteeism policy since on daily basis employees control their own attendance but in front of recurrent absences at work disciplinary actions can take place known by the workers in advance.

7 0
3 years ago
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