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Kobotan [32]
3 years ago
7

Candela Company has retained earnings of $500,000, common stock of $400,000, and total common stockholders’ equity of $1,200,000

. It has 200,000 shares of $2 par value common stock outstanding which is currently selling for $5 per share. If Candela Company declares a 2-for-1 stock split on its common stock, what will the effect on total common stockholder's equity?
Business
1 answer:
bogdanovich [222]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

Total common stockholder's equity will not be effected after the stock split. In other words, it remains at the total of $1,200,000.

Explanation:

Since this is the stock-split transaction, the total common equity does not change.

What has been changed after the stock split is the increase of outstanding share of the company and the decrease par value of their common share. The change is proportionate in the way that total value of the company common stock's related account remain the same.

In this question, since the stock slit is 2-for-1, par value decreases by one-half and outstanding common share increases double.

You might be interested in
If the cost of a market basket is $200 in year 1 and $230 in year 2, the price index for year 2 using year 1 as the base is: A.
siniylev [52]

Answer:

 B. 115 

Explanation:

The price index calculates changes in the prices paid by consumers for a basket of goods and services over a period.

Price index = (Cost of basket in a given year / cost of basket in the base year) × 100

230 / 200 = 1.15 × 100 = 115

I hope my answer helps you

6 0
3 years ago
Taveras Corporation is currently operating at 50% of its available manufacturing capacity. It uses a job-order costing system wi
NARA [144]

Answer:

Results are below.

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Machine-hours required to support estimated production 165,000

Fixed manufacturing overhead cost $ 1,980,000

Variable manufacturing overhead cost per machine-hour $ 2.00

<u>First, we need to calculate the predetermined overhead rate:</u>

Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= total estimated overhead costs for the period/ total amount of allocation base

Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= (1,980,000/165,000) + 2

Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= $14 per machine hour

<u>Job P90:</u>

Direct materials $ 1,150

Direct labor cost $ 830

Machine-hours used 72

Allocated MOH= Estimated manufacturing overhead rate* Actual amount of allocation base

Allocated MOH= 14*72

Allocated MOH= $1,008

Total manufacturing cost= 1,150 + 830 + 1,008

Total manufacturing cost=  $2,988

8 0
3 years ago
Donna is looking into investing a portion of her recent bonus into the stock market. While researching different companies, she
iogann1982 [59]

Answer:

The Azure Travel Company would give Donna a stable long-term investment

Explanation:

In finance, standard deviation (SD) is used to measure the level of risk of an investment. The purpose of SD is to know the market volatility or variability of an investment from its average market price when the SD is applied to the annual rate of return of that particular investment.  

The higher the standard deviation, that is when there is a wild movement of prices of an investment, the investment will be risky.

From the question, Perfect Plungers Plus the standard deviation of stock prices of Perfect Plungers Plus which is $9.87 is higher than the standard deviation of stock prices of Azure Travel Company which is $1.12.

This implies that the stock of Perfect Plungers Plus is riskier and more volatile than the stock of the Azure Travel Company. Therefore, the Azure Travel Company would give Donna a stable long-term investment.

6 0
3 years ago
On January 1, Parson Freight Company issues 9.0%, 10-year bonds with a par value of $3,400,000. The bonds pay interest semiannua
Brums [2.3K]

Answer:

January 1

Cash                                           $3168967 Dr

Discount on Bonds Payable    $231033

            Bonds Payable                        $3400000 Cr

Explanation:

The issuance of bond on January 1 is at a discount as the coupon rate paid by the bond is less than the market interest rate. In such case the bond is issued at a lower value than its par/face value. The discount on bonds payable is the difference between the face value and the cash received on issuance.

The entry to record the issues include a debit to cash account as cash is received, a debit to the discount on bonds payable account for the amount of discount and a credit to bonds payable account as liability is created as a result of the issuance of the bonds.

Discount = 3400000 - 3168967 = 231033

5 0
3 years ago
The differences between uninsurable and insurable risks
Varvara68 [4.7K]
Uninsurable risk is one where the insurance company cannot calculate the probability of the risk occurring which can happen due to numerous reasons. An insurable risk is one where the calculations can be made and the premium that gets paid is determined.
3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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