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gizmo_the_mogwai [7]
3 years ago
7

The basic earnings per share and the diluted earnings per share would have quite different values for a firm that relied heavily

on preferred stock and convertible debt securities to acquire funds.True/False
Business
1 answer:
S_A_V [24]3 years ago
7 0

Answer: TRUE

Explanation:BASIC EARNINGS PER SHARE is a term used in the financial Securities market to mean the NET INCOME available to common shareholders.

DILLUTED EARNINGS PER SHARE is a term used in the financial Securities market to describe the outstanding profits available to common shareholders, after all the preferred stocks, warrants,convertible securities have been converted to common stocks.

Preferred stocks are also called hybrid stock, because it has certain features of common stock and convertible securities,it has a higher priority than common stock to payment of dividend etc.

Convertible debt securities are debt securities which can be converted to common stocks.

It basic earnings and diluted earning per share will definitely not be the same for such a firm.

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The Young Woman's Club of Williams has been operating for seventy-five years as an organization that supports women who stay at
likoan [24]

Answer:

A) a liability.

Explanation:

Probably, the strong culture held by the Young Woman's Club of Williams (YWCW) will be perceived to have a very low tolerance for diversity by the newcomers. It will also prevent the organization from growing in number. That doesn't mean that it will lose affiliates, but the total number of affiliates will not grow according to the growth in Williams's total population.

Since its strong culture will prevent the YWCW from growing and adapting to community changes, it should be considered a liability.

3 0
4 years ago
It’s time for the Bizlaw County auction! For each of the auction items listed below, you will (1) determine which type of proper
Andrei [34K]

Answer:

I have formulated the answer in the table and the table is attached in the attachment please refer to the attachment 1.

Explanation:

<em>Please refer to the attachment 1. And here is the explanation</em>

Inherited property is the property which is transferred to ones beloved after she/he passes away or makes a will, so statement A, E and F are inherited properties.

Purchased property are the ones that one acquires after paying certain price of the good, so B is purchased property.

Abandoned property is the goods or intangible thing left somewhere and the owner is not known, so statement C and D are abandoned properties.

<em></em>

6 0
3 years ago
A clearinghouse scam involves a victim receiving: a. a letter that claims he or she has inherited a significant amount of money.
Vitek1552 [10]

Answer:

c. a letter that falsely claims the writer represents a foreign bank.

Explanation:

A clearing house is a financial institution that should be created for exchanging the payments, securities, or transactions related to derivates. It stands between the two clearing firms. Its motive is to decrease the member risk that failed to honor the trade settlement liabilities

So the clearing house scam includes the victim that collect the letter in which there is false claims where the writer shows the foreign bank

5 0
3 years ago
Under a flexible-price monetary approach to the exchange rate Group of answer choices when the domestic money supply falls, the
Anastaziya [24]

Answer:

when the domestic money supply falls, the price level would eventually fall, keeping the interest rate constant.

Explanation:

Price can be defined as the amount of money that is required to be paid by a buyer (customer) to a seller (producer) in order to acquire goods and services.

In sales and marketing, pricing of products is considered to be an essential element of a business firm's marketing mix because place, promotion and product largely depends on it.

The flexible-price monetary model was developed by Frenkel and Mussa in 1976 and it states that the prices of goods are flexible while the purchasing power parity (PPP) is always constant.

Under a flexible-price monetary approach to the exchange rate when the domestic money supply falls, the price level would eventually fall, keeping the interest rate constant.

6 0
3 years ago
If ten years ago the price of a movie ticket was $5 and the average hourly wage was $10, and today the price of a movie ticket i
adelina 88 [10]

Answer:

It means movies are relatively cheaper than working hours

Explanation:

In order to estimate the relativity of the two activities, there is a need to compare the changes over ten years

1. 10 years ago, Movie ticket= $5, 10 Years later Movie ticket= $8, the 10 year difference is $3

2. 10 years ago, average hourly wage = $10, 10 years later, average hourly wage = $20, the 10 year difference is $10

First, it means for the $3 change in movie ticket cost, there was a $10 change in the average hourly wage.

Put differently, while movie ticket got a 60% increase in price 3/5 x 100=60%

Average hourly wage got 100% increase  10/10 x 100= 100%

It means that working hours got more expensive and movie tickets got cheaper

8 0
3 years ago
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