Answer:
1/26 meter
Step-by-step explanation:
You would start by dividing 1/4 by 6. You'd have to multiply 1/4 by the reciprocal of 6 (the reciprocal of 6 would be 1/6). Then you get (1/4) * (1/6), which is equal to 1/24.
Using: A^2+b^2=c^2
A&b= (√10)^2=10
10+10=c^2
20=c^2
(take the square root of 20)
c=2√5
Your answer is D
Answer:
40 mm
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
We can rewrite the given functions in the form 
to determine the rate of growth or 
to determine the rate of decay
The preferred gig is the first one since its today's worth is greater than the today's value of the second gig
What is the today's worth of $5000 each year?
The worth of the second gig, which pays $5000 every year for the next 6 years in today's dollar is the present value of all the six annual cash flows discounted using the present value formula of an ordinary annuity as shown below:
PV=PMT*(1-(1+r)^-N/r
PV=present value of annual payments for 6 years=unknown
PMT=annual payment=$5000
r=required return=discount rate=8%
N=number of annual cash flows=6
PV=$5000*(1-(1+8%)^-6/8%
PV=$5000*(1-(1.08)^-6/0.08
PV=$5000*(1-0.630169626883105)/0.08
PV=$5000*0.369830373116895
/0.08
PV=$23,114.40
The fact that the present value of the second option which pays $5000 annually is lesser than the amount receivable immediately, which is $25,000, hence, the first gig is preferred
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