1answer.
Ask question
Login Signup
Ask question
All categories
  • English
  • Mathematics
  • Social Studies
  • Business
  • History
  • Health
  • Geography
  • Biology
  • Physics
  • Chemistry
  • Computers and Technology
  • Arts
  • World Languages
  • Spanish
  • French
  • German
  • Advanced Placement (AP)
  • SAT
  • Medicine
  • Law
  • Engineering
Viefleur [7K]
3 years ago
15

Use the given inverse to solve the system of equations. left brace Start 3 By 3 Matrix 1st Row 1st Column x minus y plus z 2nd C

olumn equals 3rd Column negative 6 2nd Row 1st Column 2 y plus z 2nd Column equals 3rd Column negative 6 3rd Row 1st Column 3 x minus 8 y 2nd Column equals 3rd Column negative one half EndMatrix The inverse of left bracket Start 3 By 3 Matrix 1st Row 1st Column 1 2nd Column negative 1 3rd Column 1 2nd Row 1st Column 0 2nd Column 2 3rd Column 1 3rd Row 1st Column 3 2nd Column negative 8 3rd Column 0 EndMatrix right bracket is left bracket Start 3 By 3 Matrix 1st Row 1st Column negative 8 2nd Column 8 3rd Column 3 2nd Row 1st Column negative3 2nd Column 3 3rd Column 1 3rd Row 1st Column 6 2nd Column negative 5 3rd Column negative 2 EndMatrix right bracket .
Mathematics
1 answer:
natka813 [3]3 years ago
5 0

The interpretation of the given question is as follows:

Use the given inverse to solve the system of equations

x- y - z = -6  \\ \\ 2y + z = -6 \\ \\  3x -8 y = - \dfrac{1}{2}

The inverse of  \left[\begin{array}{ccc}1&-1&1\\0&2&1\\3&-8&0\end{array}\right]   is \left[\begin{array}{ccc}-8&8&3\\-3&3&1\\6&-5&-2\end{array}\right]

x =

y =

z =

Answer:

x = - 1.5

y = - 0.5

z =  - 5

Step-by-step explanation:

Using the correlation  of inverse of matrix AX = B to solve the question above;

AX = B

⇒ A⁻¹(AX)  = A⁻¹ B

X =  A⁻¹ B

So ;

X         =        A⁻¹                             B

\left[\begin{array}{c}x\\y\\z\end{array}\right] =     \left[\begin{array}{ccc}-8&8&3\\-3&3&1\\6&-5&-2\end{array}\right] =   \left[\begin{array}{ccc}-6\\ -6\\- \dfrac{1}{2}\end{array}\right]

   

 \left[\begin{array}{c}x\\y\\z\end{array}\right] =\left[\begin{array}{ccc}(-8*-6)+(8*-6)+(3*-\dfrac{1}{2})\\(-3*-6)+(3*-6)+(1*-\dfrac{1}{2})\\(6*-6)+(5*-6)+(-2* - \dfrac{1}{2})\end{array}\right]

\left[\begin{array}{c}x\\y\\z\end{array}\right] =\left[\begin{array}{ccc}(48)+(-48)+(\dfrac{-3}{2})\\(18)+(-18)+(\dfrac{-1}{2})\\(-36)+(30)+(1)\end{array}\right]

\left[\begin{array}{c}x\\y\\z\end{array}\right] =\left[\begin{array}{ccc}(\dfrac{-3}{2})\\(\dfrac{-1}{2})\\(-5)\end{array}\right]

\left[\begin{array}{c}x\\y\\z\end{array}\right] =\left[\begin{array}{ccc}-1.5\\-0.5\\ -5\end{array}\right]

You might be interested in
Find the interior angles of a regular polygon which has 6, 10 and 20 sides​
andrew-mc [135]

Answer:

(6)=120°

(10)=72°

(20)=36°

Step-by-step explanation:

(n-2)×180°

(6-2)×180°=720°

6÷720°=120°

10÷720°=72°

20÷720°=36°

4 0
3 years ago
To copy an angle using only a compass and a straightedge, begin by marking the vertex of the new angle. Then draw a ray from the
podryga [215]

The <em>correct answer</em> is:


Place the point of the compass on the vertex of our original angle. Open the compass to a random width and draw an arc through both legs of the angle. Mark the points of intersection with this arc and the sides of the angle.


Explanation:


In order to copy the angle, we need to have some reference for how wide the angle is.


So far all we have is a ray. To get the reference for the width that we need, we will construct an arc in the original angle such that it intersects each side of the angle.


We will then set the compass width to these points of intersection. This will be how we set the width of the new angle.

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
How to solve this question
Viefleur [7K]

Answer:

7x+21 = 7x + 21

Step-by-step explanation:

7(x+3)=6-(-7x - 15)

L.H.S

=7(x+3)

=7x+21 (multiply 7 by (x+3))

R.H.S:

=6-(-7x - 15)

= 6+7x+15 (multiply the -ive sign in the bracket)

= 7x + 21 ( adding 15 and 6)

now compare the two sides

7x+21 = 7x + 21 hence we prove that L.H.S= R.H.S

4 0
3 years ago
A Ferrari drove 300 kilometers in one and a half hours. How fast was the car going?
irga5000 [103]
I'm assuming you mean how many mph when you refer to how fast the car was going.

So 300 km = 1.5 hrs

1.) Find the number of km per hour
Since we have the equation 300km = 1.5hr, we can just divide 1.5 (to isolate the number of hours) on both sides.

You should get 200 km = 1 hour

2.) Convert km to miles
To do this, you must know the conversion 1 km = 0.621371192 miles

So to convert 200 km to miles, just multiply 200 x 0.621371192.

You should get 124.274238.

That means the Ferrari drove at a pace of roughly 124 mph :)
8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Solve for X when the surface area is 298ft^2
jok3333 [9.3K]

Step-by-step explanation:

Total surface area of cuboid= 2(lb+bh+hl)

= 298ft²=2(28+4x+7x)

= 149=28+11x

= 121=11x

= 11=x

6 0
2 years ago
Other questions:
  • If a fair die is rolled 4 times what is the probability only one roll results in a 6
    15·1 answer
  • Is 1.3 less or greater then 1 3/5
    11·2 answers
  • Help show work plz help
    15·1 answer
  • Question 1
    15·1 answer
  • 2 to the 12th power = 4,096. How many other whole numbers can you raise to a power to get 4,096! Explain or show your reasoning.
    12·1 answer
  • What is 24.461 rounded to the nearest tenth
    11·2 answers
  • 1. find the measure of each angle
    12·1 answer
  • The reflection of a point P across a line m is the
    15·1 answer
  • A polynomial function g(x) with integer coefficients has a leading coefficient of 1 and a constant term of
    5·1 answer
  • Enter a number in the box so that the equation will have infinitely many solutions.
    11·2 answers
Add answer
Login
Not registered? Fast signup
Signup
Login Signup
Ask question!