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3 years ago

2. Which of the following might cause pollution?

Mathematics

2 answers:

Kryger [21]3 years ago

8 0

Answer:

All of them cause pollution

Step-by-step explanation:

Car exhaust: it causes air pollution due to the release of certain dangerous forms of carbon into the atmosphere.
Chemicals:this causes a wide range of effects as it can lead to air water and land pollution. Its effects ranges from release of harmful gases into the atmosphere to pollution of river to the contamination of soil
Oceans: this can be caused when water is not needed in a particle environment and this water can lead to the contamination of those materials in that environment as in the case of a chemical experiment that gets contaminated or becomes dangerous when exposed to moisture or the direct entry of ocean water into a habitat that doesn't need that much water
People: They can be see as the major cause as the control or affect what goes wrong in their environment. They have certain control on various factors that cause pollution.

Verdich [7]3 years ago

6 0

Answer: (a) car exhaust; (b) chemicals and (d) people

Step-by-step explanation:

Indeed, it all starts from people. They are the ones who use the cars and make the pollution happen. It is also people who use chemicals to pan and find gold, for example, polluting rivers.

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Pam and Chris found a home for which they would have to borrow H dollars. If they take out a 25-year loan with monthly payment M

Mariana [72]

The amount of money borrowed is $ H
Time for borrowing is 25 years
Amount paid per month M
Amount paid per year 12M
Interest rate paid=I
Let the payment method be simple interest method, then:
I=(PRT)/100
plugging in our values we have:
I=(H×R×M)/100
hence:
I=HRM/100

5 0

3 years ago

DIscrete Math

Daniel [21]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

As the statement is ‘‘if and only if’’ we need to prove two implications

$f : X \rightarrow Y$ is surjective implies there exists a function $h : Y \rightarrow X$ such that $f\circ h = 1_Y$ .
If there exists a function $h : Y \rightarrow X$ such that $f\circ h = 1_Y$ , then $f : X \rightarrow Y$ is surjective

Let us start by the first implication.

Our hypothesis is that the function $f : X \rightarrow Y$ is surjective. From this we know that for every $y\in Y$ there exist, at least, one $x\in X$ such that $y=f(x)$ .

Now, define the sets $X_y = \{x\in X: y=f(x)\}$ . Notice that the set $X_y$ is the pre-image of the element $y$ . Also, from the fact that $f$ is a function we deduce that $X_{y_1}\cap X_{y_2}=\emptyset$ , and because $f$ the sets $X_y$ are no empty.

From each set $X_y$ choose only one element $x_y$ , and notice that $f(x_y)=y$ .

So, we can define the function $h:Y\rightarrow X$ as $h(y)=x_y$ . It is no difficult to conclude that $f\circ h(y) = f(x_y)=y$ . With this we have that $f\circ h=1_Y$ , and the prove is complete.

Now, let us prove the second implication.

We have that there exists a function $h:Y\rightarrow X$ such that $f\circ h=1_Y$ .

Take an element $y\in Y$ , then $f\circ h(y)=y$ . Now, write $x=h(y)$ and notice that $x\in X$ . Also, with this we have that $f(x)=y$ .

So, for every element $y\in Y$ we have found that an element $x\in X$ (recall that $x=h(y)$ ) such that $y=f(x)$ , which is equivalent to the fact that $f$ is surjective. Therefore, the prove is complete.

3 0

3 years ago

<img src="https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%7Cx-%5Cfrac%7B1%7D%7B2%7D%7C%3D3%5Cfrac%7B2%7D%7B3%7D" id="TexFormula1" title="|x-\frac{1}{2}

Bogdan [553]

Answer:

x= 4 1/6, -3 1/6

Step-by-step explanation:

Hope this helps

8 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

PLEASEE HELPP ME IM DESPERATE

miss Akunina [59]

Answer:

I can help with Q "4" as -

It uses triangle congruence test - here we use - SAS, as

one side is equal as it is given

both the angles are 90 degree

and they share a same side

so -

8x = 6x + 5

8x - 6x = 5

2x = 5

x = 2.5

RU = 6x+ 5 = 6 (2.5) + 5 = 20

( I am not so sure but I think this is the answer )

3 0

3 years ago

Explain why if a runner completes a 6.2â-mi race in 32 âmin, then he must have been running at exactly 11 âmi/hr at least twice

MA_775_DIABLO [31]

Answer:

Accelerating to top speed, deaccelerating to finish line.

Step-by-step explanation:

If the runner kept a constant speed of 11 mph for the whole duration of his run (32 minutes), the distance he would have covered is:

$d=11*\frac{32}{60}\\d= 5.87\ mi$

This means that, in order to run the full 6.2 miles, the runner needs to reach a speed over 11 mph. Assume he starts from rest, while accelerating the runner reaches, and the surpasses, the 11 mph mark. Since his speed at the finish line is zero, the runner has to deaccelerate from his current running speed (which should be higher than 11 mph), passing through 11 mph and reaching zero at the finish line.

3 0

3 years ago