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marishachu [46]
3 years ago
15

Benjamin has saved $40.00 for concert tickets, but decides to buy a new pair of jeans instead. In this scenario, what do the con

cert tickets MOST LIKELY represent?
A) capital
B) scarcity
C) opportunity cost
D) decreased demand
Business
2 answers:
Elza [17]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:  C. opportunity cost

In economics, "opportunity cost" is the value of something that is given up in order to acquire something else.  There are always multiple uses for capital (cash or money for investment), as well as other economic resources (labor, land, etc).   So we're always faced with opportunities and make decisions about which opportunities we'll pursue and which we'll not pursue.  The concert tickets are an opportunity cost that Benjamin decided against in order to purchase jeans instead.

vichka [17]3 years ago
3 0

The correct answer for USATestprep, LLC - Online State-Specific Review and Assessments ECONOMICS is . . .

C) opportunity cost

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An oligopoly exists when a firm offers a product that has no close substitutes, making the firm the sole source of supply.
Mademuasel [1]

Answer:

B) False

Explanation:

That would be a monopoly (only one supplier).

An oligopoly is a market where there are very few suppliers, and competition is very limited since the barriers to entry are very significant.

For example, the automobile industry is an oligopoly. There are only a few car manufacturers in the world, and they all are very large corporations. It costs hundreds of millions of dollars to introduce a new car model, and every time that happens, the corporations must carry on expensive advertising and promotional campaigns.

4 0
3 years ago
Jit is a ______________ system.<br> a. push<br> b. pareto's law<br> c. mrp<br> d. pull
olga55 [171]
D maybe hope this helps

5 0
3 years ago
Gilchrist Corporation bases its predetermined overhead rate on the estimated machine-hours for the upcoming year. At the beginni
Illusion [34]

Answer:

The correct answer is A.

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

The estimated machine-hours for the upcoming year at 79,000 machine-hours.

The estimated variable manufacturing overhead was $7.38 per machine-hour

The estimated total fixed manufacturing overhead was $2,347,090.

To calculate the estimated manufacturing overhead rate we need to use the following formula:

Estimated manufacturing overhead rate= total estimated overhead costs for the period/ total amount of allocation base

Estimated manufacturing overhead rate= 2,347,090/79,000 + 7.38= $37.09 per machine-hour

3 0
3 years ago
Regling Company provides its employees vacation benefits and a defined benefit pension plan. Employees earned vacation pay of $4
Leto [7]

Answer:

A.

Dr Vacation pay expenses $40,000

Cr Vacation pay payable $40,000

B.

Dr Pension expenses $222,750

Cr Cash $185,000

Cr Unfunded pension liability $37,750

Explanation:

Regling Company Journal entries

A.

Dr Vacation pay expenses $40,000

Cr Vacation pay payable $40,000

B.

Dr Pension expenses $222,750

Cr Cash $185,000

Cr Unfunded Pension liability $37,750

8 0
3 years ago
As winner of a breakfast cereal competition, you can choose one of the following prizes: a. $180,000 at the end of five years. b
Stolb23 [73]

Answer:

i. Discounted cashflow equations.

a.  $180,000 at the end of five years.

This is a lump sum present value/ discounted cashflow which can be calculated as;

Formula = 180,000 / ( 1 + r)^n

= 180,000/ ( 1 + 12%)^5

= $102,136.83

b. $11,400 a year forever

This is a perpetuity. The present value/ discounted cashflow of a perpetuity is calculated as;

Formula = Amount/rate

= 11,400/12%

= $95,000

c. $19,000 for each of 10 years.

This is an annuity. The formula for calculating the Present value/ discounted cashflow of an annuity is;

Formula = Annuity * [\frac{( 1 - (1 + i)^{-n} )}{i} ] where <em>i </em>is interest rate and <em>n</em> is number of periods

= 19,000 * [\frac{( 1 - (1 + 0.12)^{-10} )}{0.12} ]

= $107,354.24

d. $6,500 next year and increasing thereafter by 5% a year forever.

This is a growing perpetuity. The present value/ discounted cashflow formula is;

= Amount / ( discount rate - growth rate)

= 6,500 / ( 12% - 5%)

= $92,857.14

ii. Choose <u>$19,000 for each of 10 years</u> as it has the highest present value.

7 0
3 years ago
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