I can't really answer your question (as I don't really know enough about 18th century France), but I just want to clear up an (understandable) misconception about Feudalism in your question.
The French revolution was adamant and explicit in its abolition of 'feudalism'. However, the 'feudalism' it was talking about had nothing at all to do with medieval 'feudalism' (which, of course, never existed). What the revolutionaries had in mind, in my own understanding of it, was the legally privileged position of the aristocracy/2nd estate. This type of 'feudalism' was a creation of early modern lawyers and, as a result, is better seen as a product of the early-modern monarchical nation-state, than as a precursor to it. It has nothing to do with the pre-nation-state medieval period, or with the Crusades.
Eighteenth-century buffs, feel free to chip in if I've misrepresented anything, as this is mostly coming from my readings about the historiographical development of feudalism, not any revolutionary France expertise, so I may well have misinterpreted things.
Answer:
A
Explanation:
sank the British HMS Guerriere
Answer:
security, borders, water rights, control of Jerusalem, Israeli settlements, Palestinian freedom of movement, and Palestinian right of return.
Explanation:
Answer: (middle point, intersection)
RIGHT
Explanation:
Since the main economic activities revolve around the NASA's space center because of the quantity of people it attracts and works there, once the facilities are closed you can predict their average household income shall decrease because there will not be as many people around anymore. This has happened in other cases with petroleum companies, many towns have formed around their facilities and once they move the towns have to face a big income decrease.
