solution:
vector N points to the left and up so the components Nx and Ny are negative and positive respectively
then
,
Nx = - N sinθ and Ny = N cosθ
The answer is d you would divide both sides by pi to get d
<h3>Answers:</h3>
- first box = 0
- second box = 0
- third box = 4
- fourth box = -3
It's not a typo that 0 is written twice.
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Explanation:
This is considered a step function because it resembles steps or a staircase. The vertical pieces aren't drawn to allow it to remain a function (or else it fails the vertical line test). Also there should be open holes at each left endpoint.
Recall that any horizontal line has a slope of 0 due to the fact that the rise is 0
slope = rise/run
The rise takes care of the vertical change in position. But if the line doesn't go up or down, then rise = 0 leads to slope = 0.
In short, the slope of each horizontal portion is 0. It doesn't matter which sub-section you focus on.
This is why you'll type 0 into the first two boxes.
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As for the remaining two boxes, you'll be looking where the graph is the highest and the lowest to determine the max and min y values respectively.
We see that y peaks at y = 4 at the very top. So you'll type 4 into the third box.
Furthermore, we see that the lowest part of the graph is when y = -3. Therefore, this is the minimum aka smallest y value and you'll type -3 into the fourth box.
Answer:
a) 
b) 
Step-by-step explanation:
Given Data:
Interest rate=
per year
No. of years=
Rate of continuous money flow is given by the function
a) to find the present value of money
Put f(t)=2000 and n=10 years and r=0.08
Now integrate
(b) to find the accumulated amount of money at t=10
Where P is the present worth already calculated in part a
so the 2nd equation is really the first equation in disguise.
since both equations are the same, that means if you graph them, is just one line pancaked over the other, and the solutions points is every single one on each, namely
infinitely many solutions.
