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vovikov84 [41]
3 years ago
12

On January 1, 2006, Torey Inc. purchased a machine for $120,000. They estimated that the machine would have an eight year useful

life. They depreciate the equipment using the sum-of-the-year’s digits method. They record depreciation expense of $18,000 for the fiscal year ending on December 31, 2008. What was the estimated salvage value on the equipment?
Business
1 answer:
Cerrena [4.2K]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

Salvage value = $12000

Explanation:

Sum-of-year's digits is a form of accelerated depreciation which believes that the productivity of an asset reduces overtime, hence so does its depreciation cost. This is calculated as follows:

(Remaining useful life of the asset / sum of the year's digits) x depreciation cost

<u>OR</u>

(Remaining useful life of the asset / sum of the year's digits) x (Cost of asset - salvage value)

<em>In this case however, we are unaware of total depreciation cost as well as the salvage value. We can use the information provided to obtain these and ultimately answer the question :)</em>

We can obtain the <em>sum of years depreciation</em> as follows:

Total number of useful life years = 8

Hence, sum of the year's digits is = 1 + 2 + 3 + 4 + 5 + 6 + 7 + 8 = 36

We also know the <em>depreciation expense</em> for the third year, which is $18000.

In January 2018 (third year), the<em> remaining useful life of asset</em> is = 8 - 2 = 6

If we substitute this into the equation, we can find the depreciation cost.

Depreciation cost x (6/36) = 18000

Depreciation cost = 18000 x (36/6)

Depreciation cost = $108,000.

Now to calculate salvage value:

Cost of asset - Depreciation cost = Salvage value

Salvage value = $120,000 - $108,000 = $12000

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What is the stock price per share for a stock that has a required return of 12%, an expected annual dividend of $3.15 per share
Simora [160]

Answer:

Price per share = $78.75

Explanation:

<em>The Dividend Valuation Model is a technique used to value the worth of an asset. According to this model, the worth of an asset is the sum of the present values of its future cash flows discounted at the required rate of return.</em>

If dividend is expected to grow at a given rate , the value of a share is calculated using the formula below:

Price=Do (1+g)/(k-g)  

Where Do- Dividend now, g- growth rate, k- required rate of return(cost of equity)

<em>Note Do (1+g) represents the expected dividend in the first year</em>

DATA:

Do (1+g) = 3.15

g= 8%

k= 12%

Price per share = 3.15/(0.12- 0.08) = $78.75

Price per share = $78.75

5 0
3 years ago
Alice and Bob entered into a forward contract some time ago. Alice has the long position, while Bob has the short position. The
mart [117]

Answer:

$ - 1.96

Explanation:

After three months, Alice (long the contract) can buy the underlying by paying the delivery price of $40 which is $2 less than $42 the long position would have to pay if the contract was entered today.

DATA

Delivery price = $40

The three-month risk-free interest rate (with continuous compounding) =8%.

The current forward price = $42

Solution

So based on the present situation, Alice would be in $2 profit at the end of 3 months and Bob would be in $2 loss

Present value of Bob's loss (with continuous compounding) = 2\times e^{-0.08\times 0.25}

Present value of Bob's loss (with continuous compounding) = $1.96

The value of Bob's position is $ - 1.96

6 0
4 years ago
Cindy, who is self-employed, maintains an office in her home that comprises 24% (290 square feet) of total floor space. Gross in
ZanzabumX [31]

Answer:

The correct answer for regular method is $2,514 and for simplified method is $1,450.

Explanation:

According to the scenario, the computation of the given data are as follows:

Regular Method:

Total home deduction = ( Real property taxes × 24%) + ( Interest on mortgage × 24%) + (Operating expenses × 24%) + ( Depreciation )

So, by putting the value, we get

Total home deduction = ( $2,400 × 24%) + ( $4,000 × 24%) + ($2,200 × 24%) + ( $450 )

= $576 + $960 + $528 + $450

= $2,514

Simplified Method:

According to simplified method, the maximum deduction per square ft. can be $5.

So, Home deduction = $5 × 290 Sq. ft.

= $1,450.

6 0
4 years ago
At Abendreg, a multinational law firm, only English-speaking trainers are given the opportunity to impart training to employees
geniusboy [140]

Answer:

Adverse impact

Explanation:

Adverse impact is the unpleasant effect of a bias segmentation of a particular group during selection procedures such as employment, hiring, training, layoff or appraisal processes. Adverse impact in a work place processes may give rise to discrimination directed to a particular group base on a given attributes such as qualifications, ability, age, gender etc.

In this question, the company has most of its branches in English-speaking countries hence they only gave preferences to English-speaking trainers to impart training to employees in different countries

7 0
3 years ago
A 37-year old individual purchases a life insurance policy of $95,000 for an annual payment of $250. based on a insurance report
Sergeeva-Olga [200]

Answer:Expected value = - 94661.45

Explanation:

The Policy pay out is $95000 ,if a client is in life threatening accident insurance company will loose $95000, if the client is not in a life threatening accident the insurance company will gain $250

Probability (Client is in a threatening accident) = 0.999063

Probability (not in a life threatening accident)= 1 - 0.999063 = 0000937

Insurance Premium = $250

Insurance Payout = $95000

expected value = 0.999063 x (- (95000 - 250)) + 0.000937 x (250)

expected value = 0.999063 x (-94750) + 0.000937 x (250)

expected value = - 94661.21925 + 0.23425 = - 94661.44675

expected value = - 94661.45

8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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