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kupik [55]
3 years ago
11

How many radians is 60 °

Mathematics
2 answers:
Shtirlitz [24]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

1.047

Step-by-step explanation:

60° × π/180 = 1.047rad

or

From the standard conversion factor

360∘ = 2 π r a d

we may use ratio and proportion to obtain that

60 ∘ = π 3 r a d

solniwko [45]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

pi/3

Step-by-step explanation:

To convert from degrees to radians, we multiply by pi/180

60 degress * pi/180 =  pi/3

60 degrees is pi/3 radians

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<1 and <2 form a linear pair. The measure of <2 is six more than twice the measure of <1. Find the measure of <2
MrMuchimi

Answer:

122 Degrees

Step-by-step explanation:

Since we are given that angle 1 and 2 make a linear pair:

angle 1 + angle 2 = 180 degrees ----------------------------(1)

We have also been told that angle 2 is 6 more than twice the measure of angle 1

Which means: angle 2 = (2*angle1)  + 6 -------------------(2)

From putting the value of angle 2 in (1) from (2)

<em>angle 1 + 2*angle 1 + 6 = 180</em>

<em>3*angle 1 = 174</em>

angle 1 = 58 degrees -----------------------(3)

From (1) and (3):

<em>angle 2 + 58 = 180</em>

angle 2  = 122 degrees

Therefore, the measure of angle 2 is 122 degrees

7 0
3 years ago
The logo for a new company is a circle divided into 24 equally sized sectors. Six of the sectors are white, and the others are d
AveGali [126]

Answer:

r = 2.5

Step-by-step explanation:

the area of the whole circle = \frac{13}{50}*π * 24

A = πr² = (13π*24)/50

r = √((13*24)/50) = 2.5 inches

8 0
3 years ago
How do i find the vertex from x intercept form
hjlf
You'll have to convert the equation from x-int to standard form (ax² + by + c), and then convert it to vertex form (y = a(x - h)²<span> + </span><span>k)</span>
3 0
3 years ago
Which is a solution to the equation y = 5x + 1
bija089 [108]

Answer:

(5,26)

Step-by-step explanation:

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
How do you solve this? cosθ-tanθcosθ=0
laila [671]
First, lets note that tan(\theta)\cdot cos(\theta)=sin(\theta). This leads us with the following problem:

cos(\theta)-sin(\theta)=0

Lets add sin on both sides, and we get:

cos(\theta)=sin(\theta)

Now if we divide with sin on both sides we get:

\frac{cos(\theta)}{sin(\theta)}=1

Now we can remember how cot is defined, it is (cos/sin). So we have:

cot(\theta)=1

Now take the inverse of cot and we get:
\theta=cot^{-1}(1)=\pi\cdot n+ \frac{\pi}{4} , \quad n\in \mathbb{Z}

In general we have cot^{-1}(1)=\frac{\pi}{4}, the reason we have to add pi times n, is because it is a function that has multiple answers, see the picture:

4 0
3 years ago
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