1. A
2. L
3. Q
4. P
5. X
6. H
7. (-4,1)
8.(1,4)
9.(-4,-3)
10.(0,-4)
11. (-2,-1)
12. (5,-4)
Break it down into two parts. First, what is the probability of drawing a blue marble on the first draw?Since there are 5 blue marbles and 10 total, the probability is 5⁄10, or 1/2. Now since we no longer have that blue marble, there are 4 blue marbles and 9 total. The chances of drawing a blue marble are 4/9. Therefore, the chance that both marbles drawn are blue is the chance that the first one is blue times the chance that the second one is blue. 1/2 * 4/9 = 4/18 = 2/9 Remember, math is always trying to trick you. It wants you to try and do the whole big problem at once, which can be difficult. Break it down into smaller problems, then use your answers to small parts to find the answer to the big question. Hope that helps,
Since the definition of a parallelogram literally says that it's a quadrilateral with 2 parallel sides, we have AB || CD so the 2 other sides (AC and BD) need to be either similar or parallel (either works, due to that if they're similar we can prove that since AB || CD that they're parallel). B is our answer
Let "a" and "b" represent the values of the first and second purchases, respectively.
0.40*(original price of "a") = $10
(original price of "a") = $10/0.40 = $25.00 . . . . divide by 0.40 and evaluate
a = (original price of "a") - $10 . . . . . . Julia paid the price after the discount
a = $25.00 -10.00 = $15.00
At the other store,
$29 = 0.58b
$29/0.58 = b = $50 . . . . . . . divide by the coefficient of b and evaluate
Then Julia's total spending is
a + b = $15.00 +50.00 = $65.00
Julia spent $65 in all at the two stores.
Answer:
n = - 
Step-by-step explanation:
Given
(1 + n) = - 
n
Multiply both sides by 6 ( the LCM of 3 and 2 ) to clear the fractions
4(1 + n) = - 3n ← distribute left side
4 + 4n = - 3n ( add 3n to both sides )
4 + 7n = 0 ( subtract 4 from both sides )
7n = - 4 ( divide both sides by 7 )
n = -
