Answer:
Case 1 = $9,420
Case 2 = 0
Explanation:
Determining the amount of impairment loss is given below:-
Case 1
Impairment loss = Amortized cost - Fair value
= $41,640 - $32,220
= $9,420
Case 2
Impairment loss = Amortized cost - Fair value
= 91,800 - $102,220
= 0
Since, the fair value is higher than Amortized cost so the value of Impairment loss in case 2 is 0.
The correct answer would be B. Depreciation
The important consideration for this company is that they
should think or have at least the idea of the patents, trade secrets and
copyrights are being treated differently by the countries in which is one way
of helping them of how they should struggle or do their way of doing things.
Answer:
1. $28,800
$103,200
2. $28,800
$103,200
3. $86,400
$45,600
Explanation:
1. The dividend paid to preferred stockholders = Shares × Par value × Percentage
= 3,000 shares × $120 × 8%
= $28,800
The dividend paid to Common stockholders = Cash dividend - Dividend paid to preferred stockholders
= $132,000 - $28,800
= $103,200
2. The dividend paid to preferred stockholders = Shares × Par value × Percentage
Note :- Because preferred stocks are non-cumulative in nature, the company is not allowed to pay last two years' dividends and preferred stocks are liable for payment only for the current year.
= 3,000 shares × $120 × 8%
= $28,800
The dividend paid to Common stockholders = Cash dividend - Dividend paid to preferred stockholders
= $132,000 - $28,800
= $103,200
3. The dividend paid to preferred stockholders = Shares × Par value × Percentage × Number of years
Note: Since preferred stocks are cumulative in nature, the company is forced to pay last two years' dividends along with the current year's dividend.
= 3,000 shares × $120 × 8 % × 3 years
= $86,400
The dividend paid to Common stockholders = Cash dividend - Dividend paid to preferred stockholders
= $132,000 - $86,400
= $45,600
Answer: The answer is as follows:
Explanation:
Given that,
Cash = $16,000
Inventory = $16,000 fair value (inside basis $8,000)
Accounts receivable with a fair value = $8,000 (inside basis of $12,000) to Daniela
Daniela's basis = $20,000
JRD basis = cash + inventory + accounts receivables
= 16,000 + 2,000 + 2,000
=$20,000
Out of $20,000,
Pending amount for inventory and accounts receivable allocation:
= JRD basis - Cash basis
= $20,000 - $16,000
= $4,000
This pending amount is allocated equally among the inventory and accounts receivable i.e, $2,000 is allocated to inventory and $2,000 is allocated to accounts receivable.