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lbvjy [14]
3 years ago
9

A mutual fund is offered with no up-front sales charge and no contingent deferred sales charge. It charges 50 basis points of 12

b-1 fees annually. The fund publishes an advertisement stating that: "This is a no-load fund." Which statement is TRUE?A. The statement is true as presented
B. This statement is misleading because no-load mutual funds cannot charge 12b-1 fees
C. This statement is misleading because a no-load fund cannot charge more than 25 basis points of 12b-1 fees
D. This statement is misleading because mutual funds are not permitted to advertise themselves as no-load funds
Business
1 answer:
trapecia [35]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

The correct statement is C. This statement is misleading because a no-load fund cannot charge more than 25 basis points of 12b-1 fees

Explanation:

THIS STATEMENT IS MISLEADING BECAUSE A NO-LOAD FUND CANNOT CHARGE MORE THAN 25 BASIS POINTS OF 12B-1 FEES.

A mutual fund is not permitted to advertise itself as a "no-load" fund if it charges 12b-1 fees of more than .25% (25 basis points) annually. 12b-1 fees are charges against net asset value that pay for the cost of soliciting new investment to the fund, and they can be used to compensate salespersons that sell the fund's shares.

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In 2020, a customer buys 1 GE 10%, $1,000 par debenture, M '35, at 115. The interest payment dates are Jan 1st and Jul 1st. The
34kurt

Answer:

8.02%

Explanation:

the yield to call = {coupon + [(call price - market price)/n]} / [(call price + market price)/2]

  • coupon = $50
  • call price = $1,020
  • market price = $1,150
  • n = 10 x 2 = 20

YTC = {50 + [(1,020 - 1,150)/20]} / [(1,020 + 1,150)/2]

YTC = 43.50 / 1,085 = 4.01% x 2 (annual interest) = 8.02%

7 0
3 years ago
. Bob owned a duplex used as rental property. The duplex had an adjusted basis to Bob of $86,000 and a fair market value of $300
exis [7]

Answer:

A) No gain or loss on the exchange with Bob, and $12,000 gain on the subsequent sale

Explanation:

Since apparently both Bob and Charles owned their property for more than 2 years, the exchange classifies under section 1031 exchange between related parties. Therefore, no gain or loss should be recognized by any of them.

When Charles sold the property to his business associate, who is not related to him, he realize a $12,000 gain (= $312,00 - $300,000 basis).

4 0
3 years ago
The price index was 150 in the first year, 142.5 in the second year, and 138.2 in the third year. The economy experienced:______
Maslowich

Answer:

The correct answer is:

5.0 percent deflation between the first and second years, and 3.0 percent deflation between the second and third years. (a)

Explanation:

to calculate the percentage deflation, we will simply calculate the percentage change in price between the years stated. This is calculated as follows:

% change = \%\ change = \frac{P_2 - P_1}{P_1} \times 100\\where:\\P_1 = initial\ price\ index\\P_2 = New\ price\ index\\for\ first\ and\ second\ years\\\therefore \%\ change = \frac{142.5 - 150}{150} = \frac{-7.5}{150}= -0.05  \times 100 = -5\%\\

Note that the negative sign shows a deflation.

if you use the same method for years two and three, you should get -3%, using P₁ as 142.5 and p₂ as 138.2. Hence option 'a' is correct.

7 0
3 years ago
1-a. How much will net operating income increase (decrease) per month if the monthly advertising budget increases by $8,400 and
brilliants [131]

Answer:

a. Net income is decreased by $1,600.

b. Advertising budget should not increased because it is no making enough benefit to increase or stabilize the net income. Net effect of this change is a loss of $1,600.

Explanation:

Current Operating income = ( 3,600 x $95 x 40% ) - $79,000 = $136800 - $79,000 = $57,800

After Increment

Sales  = ( 3,600 x $95 ) + $17,000 = $359,000

Contribution margin = $359000 x 40% = $143,600

Fixed Cost = $79,000 + $8,400 = $87,400

Net Income = $143,600 - $87,600 = $56,200

Net income Change = $56,200 - $57,800 = -$1,600

The data was missing in the given question, so picture containing data is attached with this answer and answer is made accordingly. please find it.

5 0
3 years ago
Demand for a good is said to be inelastic if the quantity demanded increases substantially when the price falls by a large amoun
g100num [7]

Answer:

This is a false statement.

Explanation:

Price has certain effect on the demand of a product.

An increase in price may lead to higher demand while an decrease in price may lead to lower demand.

The increase or decrease in demand following the fall or rise in price varying amount different products.

Product demand is said to be elastic when a change in price has relatively big effect in the demand while it is said to be inelastic when a change in price lead to little change in demand of a product.

As a result, the statement quote in the question is false. Demand for a good should be said to be elastic instead given the quantity demanded increases substantially when the price falls by a large amount.

7 0
4 years ago
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