Answer:
D) Facilitative
Explanation:
Facilitative style: In management, the term "facilitative decision-making style" is described as one of the different decision making styles that indicates a specific joint effort between subordinates and leaders and they are both are providing an input in order to make a "shared decision". Along with this, they also possess some degree or extent of expertise or/and motivation that is responsible for ensuring an effective decision is being made.
In the question above, the given statement represents a facilitative decision-making style.
Answer:
b. If the employer accepts Turner's counteroffer, Turner will recognize as gross income $55,000 per month [($480,000 + $180,000)/12].
Explanation:
Given that
Turner annual salary = $600,000
Counteroffer to received a monthly salary = $40,000 or $480,000 annually
And, $180,000 bonus in 5 years at the age of 65
So the benefit he will be getting would be after accepting the counter offer is
= ($480,000 + $180,000) ÷ 12 months
= $660,000 ÷ 12 months
= $55,000
A lien is a claim against an asset, often to get a loan. All debts related have to be paid before it is removed.
Answer:
Investment Opportunity 1 has a few risks.Though it invests in stocks, it makes consistent profits. It lacks volatility because managers carefully select stocks with long-term earning potential. Investment Opportunity 2 risks are related to changing interest rates, which can cause bonds to make less money for bondholders. Also, it may be affected by inflation, and it carries the risk of default: if a city or county government fails to make its bond payments, then the bondholder loses money. Both companies tell you the risks, and they have the same level of it. Investment Opportunity 1 has three documents to illustrate the fund’s risks and returns over the past five years.The first graph lists how a hypothetical investment of $10,000 fared over those five years. The second graph lists an overall earnings percentage for four different earnings periods. The final graphic shows how the company rates the level of risk. Investment Opportunity 2 also provided three documents to illustrate the fund’s risks and returns over the past five years. The first graph lists how a hypothetical investment of $10,000 fared over those five years. The second graph lists an overall earnings percentage for four different earnings periods. The final graphic shows how the company rates the level of risk. Both say the potential returns of each investment, but investment opportunity 1 hypothetical investment of $10,000 fared over those five years is not as steady as investment opportunity 2. Investment Opportunity 2 is the fraudulent one because its percentage of return is better than investment opportunity 1. Both are with large companies that are almost just alike but investment opportunity 2 has a better rates of return. The first one serves thousands of customers and specializes in managing stocks and mutual funds. The second firm serves thousands of customers, and it specializes in managing mutual funds that invest in bonds.
Explanation: Hope this helps this is what I used for <u>Edge 2020</u> ^-^. Also I do not take credit for this answer, but I feel like this is a very well and detailed answer.
