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exis [7]
3 years ago
9

Rice Industries owns a manufacturing plant in a foreign country. Political unrest in the country indicates that Rice should inve

stigate for possible impairment. Below is information related to the plant's assets ($ in millions): Book value $ 195 Undiscounted sum of future estimated cash flows 211 Present value of future cash flows 176 Fair value less cost to sell (determined by appraisal) 182 The amount of impairment loss that Rice should recognize according to U.S. GAAP and IFRS, respectively, is: U.S. GAAP IFRS a. $ 13 million $ 13 million b. $ 19 million $ 19 million c. $ 0 $ 13 million d. There is no impairment under both U.S. GAAP and IFRS.
Business
1 answer:
Dmitriy789 [7]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

c. $ 0 $ 13 million

Explanation:

Under the U.S GAAP, if the sum of future cash flows is exceeded than the book value. So, no impairment loss would be recognized . Hence it would be zero

And, According to the IFRS, if the book value is more than the fair value, than the difference of  book value and the fair value is considered

In mathematically,  

= Book value - fair value  

= $195 million - $182 million

= $13 million

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A bond with a face value of $6,000 and an annual coupon rate of 12% convertible semiannually will mature in ten years for its fa
Alinara [238K]

Answer:

Premium is $2,677.95

The premium amortization on the 7th payment is $119

Explanation:

In order to arrive at the premium on the bond,it is necessary to compute the issuing price of the bond,which can be done using the pv formula in excel as shown below:

=-pv(rate,nper,pmt,fv)

rate is the semi-annual yield to maturity on the bond which is 6%/2=3%

nper is the number of coupon interest payable by the bond,which is 10 years multiplied by 2=20

pmt is the semi-annual coupon payable by the  bond i.e 12%/2*$6000=$360

fv is the face value of the bond which is $6,000

=-pv(3%,20,360,6000)

pv=$8,677.95  

premium=issue price -face value

premium=$$8,677.95-$6,000

premium=$2,677.95

The premium amortization is the excess of coupon payment  over the interest expense.

In the attached, I calculated the premium amortization on the 7th payment.

I started by taking the issue price of $8677.95 ,added interest expense at 3% semi-annually ,deducted the coupon payment of $360,thereby leaving the outstanding balance at end of the year.

Note that the premium amortization is the excess of coupon payment over interest expense as colored coded.

Download xlsx
5 0
3 years ago
U.S.-based royal corporation is hesitant about entering into a licensing agreement with hexagon, inc., a company from the monasl
sasho [114]

I guess the correct answer is legal

U.S.-based Royal Corporation is hesitant about entering into a licensing agreement with Hexagon, Inc., a company from the Monaslu Republic, due to the likelihood that Hexagon will opportunistically break a contract or expropriate property rights. The type of risk Royal Corporation trying to avoid is legal.

Lеgal risk is thе risk οf financial οr rеputatiοnal lοss that can rеsult frοm lack οf awarеnеss οr misundеrstanding οf, ambiguity in, οr rеcklеss indiffеrеncе tο, thе way law and rеgulatiοn apply tο yοur businеss, its rеlatiοnships, prοcеssеs, prοducts and sеrvicеs.

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In some countries with very high inflation rates, citizens tend to spend their money as fast as they receive it in order to keep
ch4aika [34]

In some countries with very high inflation rates, citizens tend to spend their money as fast as they receive it in order to keep it from losing any more of its value. Under these conditions, money is said to lack stability

Explanation:

In most situations, two main factors of a high inflation rate are present in a national economy, which in most countries at the very most. Firstly, an increase in consumer spending in comparison to supply could lead to high inflation. The prices rise when more people fought about fewer goods.

Price stability ensures that excessive inflation and deflation are prevented.

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4 0
3 years ago
A risky fund has an expected return of 17% and standard deviation of 25%. The risk-free rate is 9%. The expected return of the o
Marrrta [24]

Answer:

the Sharpe ratio of the optimal complete portfolio is 0.32

Explanation:

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= (17% - 9%) ÷ 25%

= 8% ÷ 25%

= 0.32

Hence, the Sharpe ratio of the optimal complete portfolio is 0.32

We simply applied the above formula

4 0
3 years ago
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