Answer:
A) EOQ = 208.56 units
B) Average inventory = 104.28 units
C) Optimum number of order = 28.76 times
Explanation:
Economic order quantity is the order quantity that minimizes the balance of ordering and carrying cost.
Economic order quantity = √2× 29× 6,000/8=208.56 units
Average inventory = Minimum stock level + Order quantity/2
minimum stock level is not given , hence
Average inventory = 208.56/2 = 104.28 units
Optimum number of order
Optimum number of order = Demand / order quantity
= 6000/208.56= 28.76 times.
EOQ = 208.56 units
B) Average inventory = 104.28 units
C) Optimum number of order = 28.76 times
Answer:
$10,700
Explanation:
Operating cash flow is computed as;
= Net income + non cash expenses - outlay in working capital
First, we'll determine the net income
Net income = Sales $44,800 - cost $27,500 depreciation expense $2,650 - Taxes $4,500
Net income = $10,150
Operating cash flow = $10,150 + $2,650 - $2,100 = $10,700
Answer:
The journal entry to record the reduction in value would be:
Account Title Debit Credit
Loss on Impairment 11,700
Debt Investments (Available-for-Sale) 11,700
$76,700 - $65,000 = 11,700
In this case, a loss has occurred and the individual security should be written down. If Flint Co. has already recognized an unrealized holding loss—equity, an additional entry is needed to reverse this amount as well as eliminate the fair value adjustment (available-for-sale) account.
Answer:
Unprofessional employees are below or contrary to the standards expected in a particular profession.
An unprofessional employees.
The Dress of unprofessional employee is not always smart, and he will always blame others for the mistake, he or she doesn't take to correction.
They have bad manners and play pranks and gossip during work period.
They have poor communication skills and he or she may be stealing from the company
All this are unprofessional employee
Answer: b. 3 years
Explanation:
Based on the future value of $3,246 and the annual payment of $1,000, one can guess that the number of payments (years) till the future value is reached will be 3 years.
Plug 3 years in to find out if you are right;
= Annuity * (( (1 + r)^n - 1) / r)
= 1,000 * (( ( 1 + 8%)³ - 1) / 8%)
= $3,246
<em>Answer is proven to be 3 years. </em>
