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otez555 [7]
3 years ago
6

Find the congruence transformation that maps ∆ABC to ∆A’B’C’. Explain your reasoning

Mathematics
1 answer:
aalyn [17]3 years ago
7 0
To flip any of the points to map up correctly to the other points, you would have to do a reflection over the y-axis. The reasoning for this is because you cannot dilate your shape because it won't map over correctly. A translation will not work, mainly because the shape still needs to flip. A rotation will also not work because when you rotate it, the shape will still not map over your new one. 

-So your answer to this question would be that only a Reflection over the y-axis will allow the two shapes to map over each other correctly.
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Pani-rosa [81]

The answer is 8

Step by step:

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10. Jan purchased 140 shares of stock in the ABC Company at a price of $18.75 per share. During the
andre [41]

\bold{\huge{\orange{\underline{ Solution }}}}

\bold{\underline{ Given :- }}

  • <u>Jan </u><u>purchased </u><u>1</u><u>4</u><u>0</u><u> </u><u>shares </u><u>of </u><u>stock </u><u>in </u><u>ABC </u><u>company </u><u>at </u><u>a </u><u>price </u><u>of </u><u>$</u><u>1</u><u>8</u><u>.</u><u>7</u><u>5</u><u> </u><u>per </u><u>share </u>
  • <u>During </u><u>the </u><u>next </u><u>3</u><u> </u><u>days</u><u>, </u><u> </u><u>the </u><u>value </u><u>of </u><u>share </u><u>declined </u><u>by </u><u>$</u><u>1</u><u>.</u><u>0</u><u>0</u><u> </u><u>,</u><u> </u><u>$</u><u>1</u><u>.</u><u>7</u><u>5</u><u> </u><u>and </u><u>$</u><u>1</u><u>.</u><u>5</u><u>0</u>

\bold{\underline{ To \: Find :- }}

  • <u>We </u><u>have </u><u>to </u><u>find </u><u>the </u><u>value </u><u>of </u><u>a </u><u>share </u><u>of </u><u>ABC </u><u>stock </u><u>at </u><u>the </u><u>end </u><u>of </u><u>3</u><u> </u><u>days </u>

\bold{\underline{ Let's \: Begin :- }}

<u>According </u><u>to </u><u>the </u><u>question</u><u>, </u>

Cost of 1 share of ABC company = $18.75

<u>Therefore</u><u>, </u>

Cost of 140 shares purchased by Jan in the ABC company

\sf{ = 140 × 18.75 }

\sf{ = 2625\: dollars }

<u>Now</u><u>, </u>

For next 3 days, the value of share declined

\sf{ = (1 + 1.75 + 1.50)dollars }

\sf{ = 4.25 \: dollars }

<u>Therefore</u><u>, </u>

The value of shares after 3 days will be

\bold{ = }{\bold{\frac{2625 - 4.25}{ 140}}}

\bold{ = }{\bold{\frac{ 2620.75}{ 140}}}

\bold{\red{ = 18.75\: dollars}}

Hence, The value of share after 3 days will be $18.75 .

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BC is the answer love... have fun on that I-Ready Diagnostic
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