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kogti [31]
3 years ago
13

ABC Company is unloading coal from a barge on the Mississippi River. The barge contains 1,760 tons of coal. The coal is shoveled

out of the barge with a material handling machine into dump trucks. Each truck takes 4 minutes to load, 4 minutes to travel to the dump site, 4 minutes to dump, and 4 minutes to return. Each dump truck holds 22 tons of coal. Assuming no delays, how quickly can the barge be unloaded and what is the optimal number of dump trucks to be used?
Business
1 answer:
Naily [24]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

The answer is: 5 hours 20 minutes; 4 Trucks

Explanation:

Each truck has a 16 minute window to pick up and dump the coal. This process can be observed as an assembly line where each stage of production is the stages of coal transport. When Truck A is travelling to the dump site, Truck B can be loading the coal. When Truck B is travelling to the dump site and Truck A is dumping the coal, Truck C would be loading the coal. When Truck A is travelling to the loading area, Truck B dumping the coal and Truck C travelling to the dump site, Truck D would be loading the coal. Once Truck A gets to the loading area, Truck D would be on its way to the dump site and so on. In each 16 minute window 88 tons of coal (22 tons * 4) is picked up and dumped, that is, 22 tons every 4 minutes. Given that there are 1, 760 tons of coal, the total time taken to dump all the coal is equal to 320 minutes:

88 tons = 16 minutes (22 tons dumped every 4 minutes)

1, 760 tons = (1760 tons * 16)/88 tons = 320 minutes

320 minutes/ 60 minutes = 5 hours 20 minutes

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slamgirl [31]

Here, public savings = $1.05 billion and private savings = $3.15 billion

It is calculated as follows:

Total savings, S = $4.20 billion

We know: S = V+U

It means National Savings = Private savings + Public savings

Here:

V = private savings , U = public savings and

Private saving, V = 0.75 × S

 = 0.75 × $4.20 billion

 = $3.15 billion

And, the public savings will be = National savings - private savings

= $4.20 billion - $3.15 billion

= $1.05 billion

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3 0
2 years ago
Stock R has a beta of 1.8, Stock S has a beta of 0.75, the expected rate of return on an average stock is 9%, and the risk-free
PIT_PIT [208]

Answer:

Stock R more beta than Stock S = 4.2%

Explanation:

given data

Stock R beta = 1.8

Stock S beta = 0.75

expected rate of return = 9% = 0.09

risk-free rate = 5% = 0.05

solution

we get here Required Return

Required Return (Re) = risk-free rate + ( expected rate of return - risk-free rate ) beta  ...........1

Required Return (Re) = 0.05 + ( 0.09 - 0.05 ) B

Required Return (Re) =

so here

Stock R = 0.05 + ( 0.09 - 0.05 ) 1.8

Stock R = 0.122  = 12.2 %

and

Stock S = 0.05 + ( 0.09 - 0.05 ) 0.75

Stock S =  0.08 = 8%

so here more risky stock is R and here less risky stock is S

Stock R is more beta than the Stock S.

Stock R more beta Stock S =  12.2 % - 8%

Stock R more beta Stock S = 4.2%

4 0
3 years ago
Your brother is starting 9th grade next year and is thinking about going to college. What steps would you recommend he take?
kondor19780726 [428]
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5 0
4 years ago
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The Warren Watch Company sells watches for $21, fixed costs are $180,000, and variable costs are $15 per watch.
enyata [817]

Answer:

  • 5,000 watches : $150,000  loss
  • 20,000 watches:  $60,000  (Loss)
  • Break-even point = 30,000  units
  • if the selling price rises to 32  = break even points descends to 10,588 units
  • If the selling price rises to $32 but variable costs rises to $26  , the break even point goes back to 30,000units.

Explanation:

Hi, to answer this question we have to apply the next formula:

Profit = Revenue -cost

Where the revenue is equal to the units sold (x) multiplied by the selling price,

R = 21 x  

And cost is equal to the sum of the fixed and variable costs.

C = 15x + 1800

So:

P = 21x-(15x +180,000)

P = x ( 21-15)- 180,000

  • For 5,000 watches:

P = 5000(21-15)-180,000

P = 5000(6) -180,000

P= 30,000-180,000

P=-$150,000  (loss , since is negative )

  • For 20,000 watches:

P = 20,000(6) -180,000

P = 120,000-180,000

P=-$60,000  (Loss)

  • To find the break even point:

R = C

21x = 15x + 180,000

21x-15x =180,000

6 x = 180,000

x = 180,000/6

x =30,000  units

  • if the selling price rises to 32

32x = 15x + 180,000

32x-15x = 180,000

17x =180,000

x = 180,000/17

x = 10,588 units

It descends,

  • If the selling price rises to $32 but variable costs rises to $26  

32x = 26x+180,000

32x-26x = 180,000

6x = 180,000

x = 180,000/6

x =30,000

The break-even point comes back to 30,000 units.

6 0
4 years ago
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sweet [91]

Revaluation is used to adjust the book value of a fixed asset to its current market value. ... If a revaluation results in a decrease in the carrying amount of a fixed asset, recognize the decrease in profit or loss

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