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Ede4ka [16]
3 years ago
13

For a company using target costing, market price minus profit equals target price.

Business
1 answer:
Sav [38]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

The answer is false

Explanation:

Market price minus profit equals target cost and not target price.

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Lean Principles The chief executive officer (CEO) of Platnum Inc. has just returned from a management seminar describing the ben
Vladimir79 [104]

Answer:  Option E

Explanation:

A. Poor quality inventory will not be sold leading to excess of it thus it is a reason.

B. Large set up times will lead to loosing of customers, thus, reason for excess inventory.

C. Unreliable equipment urges for overproduction while the equipment is working efficiently thus it is a reason for excess inventory.

D. Poor employee relationships effects organisation process which might lead to delay in sales thus, a reason for excess inventory.

E. Workers union establishes efficiency in the work performance of labor, thus, it is not a reason in excess inventory.

7 0
4 years ago
A $200,000 loan amortized over 12 years at an interest rate of 10% per year requires payments of $21,215.85 to completely remove
lesya [120]

Answer:

loan balance after 12 years = $185409.8

Explanation:

Loan principal = $200000

interest = 10% of principal

amount paid yearly  = $21215.85

For 1st year

principal for the first year = $200000

required interest to be paid = 10% of 200000 = $20000

amount paid = $21215.85

Loan Balance after first year = (principal for first year) - (amount paid - 10% of principal ) = $198,784.15

For 2nd year

principal for the 2nd year = Loan balance after first year = $198,784.15

loan balance after 2nd year = 198784.15 - ( 21215.85 - 10% of 198784.15)

= $197568.30

same applies for the different years until the 12th year

using this formula :

Loan Balance after Nth year = [ Loan balance after (n-1) year - ( amount paid - 10% of loan balance after (n-1) year ) ]

6 0
3 years ago
Why might you complete a 1040 instead of a 1040ez? everfi?
Wittaler [7]
In general, if you have more types of deductions on your tax, the 1040 forms maybe more appropriate for you because it provide you with various options to claim deductions or credit.
The 1040Ez on the other hand only offer a simple format that only beneficial for taxpayers who made certain conditions.
6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Calculate the risk-adjusted asset base for a bank with: a. Cash of $20 million, 0% b. Gen. Obligation municipal security of $100
Ulleksa [173]
This is what i found  Answer 1
Risk-Adjusted Asset Base
The calculation of the risk-adjusted asset base for a bank is as below-
Risk-adjusted asset = (Cash × 0%) + (municipal security × 20%) + (home mortgages × 50%) + (Commercial loans × 100%)
= (20 × 0%) + (100 × 20%) + (500 × 50%) + (300$ × 100%)
= 0 + 20 + 250 + 300
= $570 million
The outcome shows that the risk-adjusted or weighted asset based for the bank will be $570 million.
Tier1 and Tier 2 Capital:
If the bank has no off-balance sheet activity then minimum required level of Tier 1 and Tier 2 capital will be-
Tier 1 capital = Risk-weighted asset × 4%
= $570 × 4%
= $22.8 million
Tier 2 capital = Maximum of 1.25% of risk-weighted asset
= $570 × 1.25%
= $7.125 million
Total capital = $22.8 + $7.125 => $29.925 million
The outcomes indicate that the minimum required level of Tier1 and Tier 2 capital is $22.8 million and $7.125 million for the bank.
Bank Comply with Capital Requirements:
If the bank has Tier 1 capital of $25 million and Tier 2 capital of $15 million then it will comply with its capital requirements of $29.925 million. It is because in this situation, total capital of bank is $37 million that is higher than the above calculated capital of $29.925 million.
Impact of off-Balance Sheet Activities on Capital Requirements
The addition of off-balance sheet activities might increase the capital requirement of the bank. It is because an off-balance sheet items is a financial contract that can create credit loss for the company due to credit risk. So, in case of adding off-balance sheet activities, a bank will require more capital to cover credit loss. Along with this, it can also increase the minimum ratio of capital to risk-weighted assets from 8% and in that situation; the bank will need more capital (Carmichael & Graham, 2012).
Answer 2
Probability of Repayment and Risk Premium
A).
If the rate on a one-year treasury bill is 6% and in case of loan default, no payments are expected on financial securities then the probability of repayment and the risk premium on 1 year AA-rated loan yielding 9 percent will be-
Probability of Repayment:
The following formula can be useful to determine probability of repayment.
P = (1 + I) / (1 + k)
Where,
I = 6%
k = 9%
Then, ...you have $2.19 left :D
 
4 0
3 years ago
Seojun acquired an activity several years ago, and in the current year, it generates a loss of $50,000. Seojun has AGI of $140,0
ahrayia [7]

Answer:

Seojun's Adjusted Gross income is $140,000.

Explanation: Adjusted Gross income(AGI) is a term used in Financial accounting to describe the total amount of gross income remaining after certain deductions have been made to the Gross income of a business entity over a given period of time.

Since Seojun is not a Material participant,the $50,000 loss can not be considered in calculating Seojun's Adjusted Gross income.

7 0
3 years ago
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