I’m not sure but roughly 2.66. PLEASE don’t get mad if I’m wrong
Answer:
The correct answer is letter "B": can be physically touched.
Explanation:
Goods are those <em>material </em>assets that satisfy consumers' needs. Services are also provided to fulfill individuals' wants but they are <em>intangible</em>, meaning even if goods can be rendered from one person to another, services cannot be touched or perceived with the senses. The creation of goods and services to cover different types of necessities is what drives countries' economies.
Answer:
bond market value $660
Explanation:
We need to calculate the present value of the maturity and the cuopon payment using the effective rate of 9.7%
First we do the annuity:
C 24.25 (1,000 face value x 4.85 bond rate / 2 )
time 24.00 (12 year 2 payment a year)
rate 0.04850 (current rate divide by 2 to get it annually)
PV $339.55
Then present value of the maturity
Maturity 1,000.00 the face value of the bond
time 24.00
rate 0.04850
PV 320.89
Finally we add them together:
PV coupon payment $339.5545
PV maturity $320.8910
Total $660.4455
rounding to nearest dollar
bond market value $660
Answer:
The note payable will be presented in the financial statement at the face amount minus a discount calculated at the imputed interest rate.
Explanation:
The imputed rate is the rate at which the present value of the face amount of the note will be equal to the amount at which it is originally recorded.
Notes issued or received in exchange for goods or services that do not bear interest at a fair rate are reported at an amount equal to the fair value of the note, the fair value of the goods or services, or the present value of the note using a fair interest rate, whichever is more readily determinable.
The difference between the recorded amount and the face value is considered a discount and the applicable interest rate regardless of which method is used to value the note.
Because of this, the note is reported at its face amount minus a discount calculated at the imputed interest rate.
Answer:
$1,241
Explanation:
For computing the net advantage to leasing first we have to determine the total cash flow from leasing and total cash flow from buying which is shown below:
For leasing:
Year Lease payment PVF at 5.8% Present value
1 $6,500 0.9452 $6,144
2 $6,500 0.8934 $5,807
3 $6,500 0.8444 $5,489
Total outflow $17,440
For buy:
Year Outflow or inflow PVF at 5.8% Present value
0 ($23,000) 1 ($23,000)
1 $1,610 0.9452 $1,522
2 $1,610 0.8934 $1,438
3 $1,610 0.8444 $1,359
Total outflow $18,681
Now the net advantage to leasing is
= Buy outflow - leasing outflow
= $18,681 - $17,440
= $1,241
