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BaLLatris [955]
3 years ago
9

What is the recursive formula for this sequence . 10,14,18,22,26

Mathematics
2 answers:
aniked [119]3 years ago
5 0

Thick it will de 9284
Marrrta [24]3 years ago
4 0

add 4 each time

the nth term is a_n or f(n)

the next term after that is a_{n+1} or f(n+1)

so each term is 4 more than previous

basically

a_{n+1}=4+a_n or

f(n+1)=4+f(n)

same thing

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How do you solve equations that contain multiplication or division
alexira [117]
Left to right. Whatever comes first (multiplication or division) you do. This is all part of the PEMDAS/Order of operations.

Hopefully I solved your problem! :)
6 0
3 years ago
Each letter of the word "supercalifragilisticexpialidocious" is placed into a bag and drawn at 3 times, replacing the letter aft
Makovka662 [10]

Answer:

P(X ≥ 1) = 0.50

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that:

The word "supercalifragilisticexpialidocious" has 34 letters in which 'i' appears 7 times in the word.

Then; the probability of success = 7/34 = 0.20588

Using Binomial distribution to determine the probability; we have:

P(X = x)  = ^nC_x  \ \beta^x   \  (1 - \beta)^{n-x}

where;

x = 0,1,2,...n    and    0  <  β   <   1

and x represents the  number of successes.

However; since the letter is drawn thrice; the probability that the letter "i" is drawn at least once can be computed as:

P(X ≥ 1) = 1 - P(X< 1)

P(X ≥ 1) = 1 - P(X =0)

P(X \ge 1) =  1 - \bigg [ {^3C__0} (0.21)^0 (1-0.21)^{3-0} \bigg]

P(X \ge 1) =  1 - \bigg [ 1 \times 1 (0.79)^{3} \bigg]

P(X ≥ 1) = 1 - 0.50

P(X ≥ 1) = 0.50

4 0
3 years ago
Evaluate. Write your answer as a fraction or whole number without exponents.
Aleks [24]
The answer to the question is 1/27
3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
a slitter assembly contains 48 blades five blades are selected at random and evaluated each day for sharpness if any dull blade
12345 [234]

Answer:

P(at least 1 dull blade)=0.7068

Step-by-step explanation:

I hope this helps.

This is what it's called dependent event probability, with the added condition that at least 1 out of 5 blades picked is dull, because from your selection of 5, you only need one defective to decide on replacing all.

So if you look at this from another perspective, you have only one event that makes it so you don't change the blades: that 5 out 5 blades picked are sharp. You also know that the probability of changing the blades plus the probability of not changing them is equal to 100%, because that involves all the events possible.

P(at least 1 dull blade out of 5)+Probability(no dull blades out of 5)=1

P(at least 1 dull blade)=1-P(no dull blades)

But the event of picking one blade is dependent of the previous picking, meaning there is no chance of picking the same blade twice.

So you have 38/48 on getting a sharp one on your first pick, then 37/47 (since you remove 1 sharp from the possibilities, and 1 from the whole lot), and so on.

Also since are consecutive events, you need to multiply the events.

The probability that the assembly is replaced the first day is:

P(at least 1 dull blade)=1-P(no dull blades)

P(at least 1 dull blade)=1-(\frac{38}{48}* \frac{37}{47} *\frac{36}{46}*\frac{35}{45}*\frac{34}{44})

P(at least 1 dull blade)=1-0.2931

P(at least 1 dull blade)=0.7068

6 0
3 years ago
Please help ASAP<br><br> 4x - 3 = 2x + 7
DedPeter [7]
To find x, refer to the attachment

7 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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