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kirza4 [7]
3 years ago
7

Show that f(x)=πx-2 and f-1(x)=(x+2/π) are inverse functions of one another

Mathematics
1 answer:
iVinArrow [24]3 years ago
5 0
They are not inverse functions of one another. For f(x) and g(x) to be inverses of each other, f(g(x)) = x. In this case, pi(x+2/pi)-2 = pi* x, which is not x.
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