Answer:
Option E
Explanation:
In simple words, the given case illustrates the cost analysis method for choosing target market segments. Under such criterion of selection, the subject company identifies various costs that it must bear in order to operate in some potential segment and after identifying those cost, such company evaluates if there will be any profit left for them in the market.
This method is complex, time consuming and needs experts advise but still is most popular nowadays as it gives most accurate results by identifying various quantitative and qualitative factors.
Answer:
Present value (PV) = $1,000
Interest rate (r) =8% = 0.08
Number of years (n) = 18 months = 1.5 years
No of compounding periods in a year = 4
Future value (FV) = ?
FV = PV(1 + r/m)nm
FV = $1,000(1 + 0.08/4)1.5x4
FV = $1,000(1 + 0.02)6
FV = $1,000 x 1.1262
FV = $1,126
Explanation:
The amount to be received in 18 months is $1,126. This is obtained by compounding the present value at 8% compounded quarterly for 18 months. The formula to be applied is the formula for future value of a lump sum(single investment).
Acquiring a government job based on political loyalty, without regard to ability, is called <span>political patronage.
Hope this helps you! :-)</span>
Answer:
Estimated manufacturing overhead rate= $32 per labor hour
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
The estimated factory overhead costs $ 2,496,000. Estimated labor hours 78,000.
Estimated manufacturing overhead rate= total estimated overhead costs for the period/ total amount of allocation base
Estimated manufacturing overhead rate= 2496000/78000= $32 per labor hour
Answer:
The expected return on security with a beta of 0.8 is closest to 7.2%.
Explanation:
This can be determined as follows:
Since the return of security Z remains at 4% despite the change in the market, security Z is the risk-free asset.
Note that a risk free asset is an asset which its returns does not change with change in the market.
Using the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) formula, we have:
Er = Rf + (B * MPR) ............................................ (1)
Where;
ER = Expected return = ?
Rf = Risk-free rate = Rate of return of security z = 4%
B = Beta = 0.8
MPR = Market risk premium = Expected return on the market rate - Risk-free rate
Expected return on the market rate = (50% * 24%) + (50% *(-8%)) = 8%
Therefore, we have:
MPR = 8% - 4% = 4%
Substituting the values into equation (1), we have
Er = 4% + (0.8 * 4%)
Er = 0.072, or 7.2%
Therefore, the expected return on security with a beta of 0.8 is closest to 7.2%.
