When the power company calculates your power bill, they use Kilowatt hours which are also known as KWh. Your total cost would be the amount of each KWh multiplied by how many you have used during the billing period. So for example if each KWh costs 10 cents, and you used a total of 500, your total cost for that period would be $50.
Answer:the new issue will dilute her ownership.
Explanation:Dilution of ownership occurs when a company sells it's shares to more people therby making the value of existing shareholders shares smaller or their
Ownership percentage of that company
So unless they take the first option to acquire certain new property or assets coming into existence before it can be offered to any other person or entity the new issue will dilute her ownership
Answer:
The answer is B a negative entry in the current account.
Explanation:
Balance of payments accounts of a country is the recording economic transactions (the payments and receipts) of the residents of the country with residents of other countries during a period of time.
Balance of Payments is in deficit or negative if imports are more than the exports and it is in surplus or positive if exports are more than imports during a period of time.
We have three categories of Balance of Payments:.
1. The current account which records the inflow and outflow of goods and services.
2. The Financial account which records
monetary flow like investment in real estates, fixed income(bonds), stocks etc.
3. The capital account which records the investments in fixed assets like land.
Answer: $618,000
Explanation:
From the question, we are informed that the Fed makes an open market operation purchase of $200,000 and that the currency drain ratio is 33.33 percent and the desired reserve ratio is 10 percent.
We first have to calculate the money multiplier which will be:
= (1 + the currency drain ratio)/( the currency drain ratio + the reserve ratio)
= (1 + 33.33%)/(33.33% + 10%)
= ( 1 + 0.33)/(0.33 + 0.1)
= 1.33/0.43
= 3.09
The quantity of money increase will be:
= 3.09 × $200,000
= $618,000
Answer: SEE EXPLANATION
Explanation:
Given the following ;
Values depending on Success
$150M, $135M, $95M, $80M
Risk free rate = 5% = 0.05
Pervebtage to be lost in case of bankruptcy = 25% = 0.25
A.) 0.25 × [( 150 + 135 + 95 + 80) ÷ 1.05] = $109.52 million
Assume a zero-coupon debt with a $100million face value
B.) 0.25 × [( 100 + 100 + (95×0.75) + (80×0.75)) ÷ 1.05] = $78.87 million
C.) Yield to maturity (YTM)
(100M÷78.87M) - 1
1.2679 - 1 = 0.2679 = 26.79%
Expected return = 5%
D.) Equity value
0.25 × [( 150 + 135 + (95×0.75) + (80×0.75)) ÷ 1.05] = $99.11 million
E.) share if no debt is issued
109.52 ÷ 10 = 10.95 per share
F.) Share price if debt of $100M is issued
99.11 ÷ 10 = 9.91 per share
The price differs because bankruptcy cost will Lower the share price.