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amid [387]
3 years ago
11

Elise's health insurance policy has a deductible of $500, a $20 copayment on doctor visits, and coinsurance of 10% on all expens

es other than those for which there are copayments. She visited the doctor four times last year (doctor's fee is $40 per visit) and underwent a surgery that cost $3,000. If instead she had had a policy with a $1,000 deductible, a $10 copayment on doctor visits, and no coinsurance, which of the following is TRUE regarding her expenses (excluding the cost of the insurance)?(A) With the higher deductible, she would have saved between $70 and $249 relative to what she paid with her actual policy.(B) With the higher deductible, she would have saved more than $250 relative to what she paid with her actual policy.(C) With the higher deductible, she would have spent at least $300 more than she paid with her actual policy.(D) With the higher deductible, she would have spent between $50 and $250 more than she paid with her actual policy.
Business
1 answer:
jeyben [28]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

The correct option is (c).

With the higher deductible, she would have spent at least $300 more than she paid with her actual policy

Explanation:

For her actual policy total expenses;

Deductible =$500

Copayment doctor visit= $20

Coinsurance of 10%= 10/100 ×500=$50

Doctor visit= $40 × 4= $160

Surgery= $3000

Total expenses= $3730

With the higher deductible expenses;

Deductible= $1000

Copayment doctor visit= $10

Doctor visit= $40×4= $160

Surgery= $3000

Total expenses= $4170

Difference in expenses= $4170-$3730= $440

Therefore option (c) is the right option.

With the higher deductible, she would have spent at least $300 more than she paid with her actual policy

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If an investor buys enough stocks, he or she can, through diversification, eliminate all of the market risk inherent in owning s
dimulka [17.4K]

Answer:

The given statement is True.

If an investor buys enough stocks, he or she can, through diversification, eliminate all of the market risk inherent in owning stocks, but as a general rule it will not be possible to eliminate all market risk.

5 0
2 years ago
Current operating income for Bay Area Cycles Co. is $34,000. Selling price per unit is $100, the contribution margin ratio is 25
leonid [27]

Answer:

break even point in unit =5440 units

break even point in sales = $544000

total sale = $680000

Explanation:

given data

Current operating income = $34,000

Selling price = $100

margin ratio = 25%

to find out

Bay Area Cycle’s break even point in units and total sales dollars

solution

we get here first break even point that is express as

break even point in unit =  \frac{fixed\ cost}{contribution\ per\ unit}   ..................1

break even point in unit =  \frac{136000}{100*0.25}

break even point in unit =5440 units

so

break even point in sales =  \frac{fixed\ cost}{margin\ ratio}   ..................2

break even point in sales = \frac{136000}{0.25}

break even point in sales = $544000

and

total sales will be

total sale =  \frac{operating\ income+ fixed\ expense}{margin\ ratio}   ..................3

total sale =  \frac{34000+136000}{0.25}

total sale = $680000

3 0
2 years ago
Eichholtz Company uses 10,000 units of a part in its production process. The costs to make a part are: direct materials, $12; di
slava [35]

Answer:

c) $40,000 to buy the part

Explanation:

For computing the better off first we have to compute the per unit cost which is shown below:

= Direct material per unit + Direct labor per unit + variable overhead + applied variable overhead

= $12 + $25 + $13 + $30 × 30%

= $12 + $25 + $13 + $9

= $59

The difference cost would be

= $59 - $55

= $4

Now the better off would be

= Number of units × difference cost

= 10,000 units × $4

= $40,000

3 0
3 years ago
Amazon Corporation has preferred stock outstanding that pays a $12.80 annual dividend. It price is $158. What is the required ra
nordsb [41]

Answer:

8.10%

Explanation:

The required rate of return (yield) on the preferred stock = Dividend / Price

= $12.80 / $158  = 0.0810126582278481 = 8.10%

5 0
2 years ago
The service cost component of a defined benefit pension plan is computed as the:
mote1985 [20]

Answer: The service cost component of a defined benefit pension plan is computed as the: <em><u>Present value of the change in pension liability from additional employee service. </u></em>

The service cost of a defined benefit pension plan is the change in the pension liability caused by one additional year of employee service. Also an expected return on pension plan assets does not cause an increase in the pension expense for a defined benefit plan.

5 0
2 years ago
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