Answer:
False
Explanation:
The after cost of debt is always lower than the before tax cost of debt. For example, a company borrows $1,000,000 and pays 7% interest per year. This results in $70,000 in interest expense before taxes = $1,000,000 x 7% = $70,000.
The after tax cost of the debt = $1,000,000 x 7% x (1 - tax rate) = $1,000,000 x 7% x (1 - 21%) = $1,000,000 x 7% x 0.79 = $55,300
hmmm...let me see......oh....free free free....free free....um...free?
hope that helps
Debit Credit
Feb 1
Services 500
Accounts Payable 500
Feb 25
Accounts Payable 300
Cash 300
March 5
Accounts Payable 200
Cash 200
The entries made in March 5th zeroed out the Accounts Payable on the Services bought on account last February 1st.
The answer is FICA.
FICA stands for Federal Insurance Contributions Act, which includes money that is taken out if your paycheck for social security and Medicare.
Answer:
$8.078 million
Explanation:
we must use the same time periods, so instead of using an annual discount rate, we should use a quarterly rate:
effective quarterly interest = (1 + 0.16)¹/⁴ - 1 = 0.0378 = 3.78%
dividends per quarter = 0.3 million + 0.05 million = $0.35 million
terminal value of firm in quarter 4 = 0.35 / 0.0378 = $9.26 million
present value of terminal value = $9.26 / (1.0378)⁴ = $7.983 million
present value of 4 quarterly dividends = $0.3 x 3.64879 (PVIFA, 3.78%, 4 periods) = $1.095 million
NPV = -$1 + $1.095 + $7.983 = $8.078 million