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geniusboy [140]
4 years ago
13

In a freely floating exchange rate system, if the current account is running a deficit, what are the consequences for the nation

’s balance on financial account and its overall balance of payments?
Business
2 answers:
andriy [413]4 years ago
7 0

Answer:

If the current account is running in as deficit, the capital account must be running in a surplus equal to the same amount and thus the overall balance of the payments is same as before.

Explanation:

In a freely floating exchange rate system, the nation's balance of payments must always be zero.

So if the current account is running in as deficit, the capital account must be running in a surplus equal to the same amount and thus the overall balance of the payments is same as before.

Karolina [17]4 years ago
6 0

Answer:

The balance of payments (BOP) must equal 0 in a free floating exchange rate system.

The formula for determining the BOP = current account + financial account + capital account +

  • current account = flow of income from one country to another, i.e. net trade between nations, net earnings from foreign investments and transfer payments
  • financial account = flow of assets from one country to another, includes foreign direct investment and portfolio investments
  • capital account = flow of money between entities in one country to another, e.g. transfer of remittances from the US to Mexico

If the current account is negative (has a deficit) it means more money exits the country though a trade deficit or earnings from foreign investments. In order for the BOP to equal 0, then both the financial account and/or the capital account must have a surplus that offset the deficit from the current account. Usually the capital account is much smaller than the financial account, at least in developed nations. In some developing countries, e.g. Central America that depend on foreign remittances, the capital account is much larger. So most of the surplus generally comes from the financial account in developed countries.

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Ira Lisetskai [31]
Since there's no available options,

There are basically two reasons :
- To make it look more profitable for the debtor
- The bank offer a lower initial rate to reduce the risk of Bad Debt Expense.

When bank offer a loan, there are always a risk of the debtor not able to return the loan. That's why bank lower the initial rate at first. After a set period of time, when the debtor became more financially stable, that's when the interest started to increase so the bank could gain some profit
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3 years ago
You have a loan outstanding. It requires making 3 annual payments of $1000 each at the end of 3 the next years. Your bank has of
GaryK [48]

Answer: $3,153

Explanation:

The amount that will make you indifferent is the future value of the 3 payments at the end of those 3 years at 5%.

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= 1,000 * 3.1525

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Bank will require a final payment of $3,153 for you to be indifferent.

6 0
4 years ago
The daily sales of a peanut butter at Power's Grocery are normally distributed, with a mean of 12 jars and a standard deviation
masha68 [24]

Answer:

d. 81

Explanation:

E(number of order) = E(X1) + E(X2) + 21 -4

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                                = 41

Therefore, The store should order 81 .

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4 years ago
You have found three investment choices for a​ one-year deposit: 9.4 %9.4% APR compounded​ monthly, 9.4 %9.4% APR compounded​ an
NeX [460]

Answer and Explanation:

The computation of EAR for each investment is shown below:-

EAR = ((1 + APR ÷ m)^m) - 1

where m indicates compounding periods

Now we will put the values with the help of the above formula

For 9.4% APR compounded monthly is

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= 9.815747%

For 9.4% APR compounded annually is

EAR = ((1 + 0.094 ÷ 1)^1) - 1

= 9.400000%

For 8.7% APR compounded daily is

EAR = ((1 + 0.087 ÷ 365)^365) - 1

= 9.088537%

7 0
3 years ago
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