What is the value of f(1)?

A Cab charges $1.75 for the flat fee and $0.25 for each mile. Write and solve an inequality to determine how many miles Eddies c

NemiM [27]

1.75 + 0.25x ≤ 15
where x is equal the number of miles.

The key to solving an inequality is just temporarily making the ≤ symbol a =. Then solve for x like any other algebraic equation. Once you find the value of x, you will have solved the inequality. Make sure to add back the ≤ when you are done.

15 - 1.75 = 13.25
13.25/0.25 = x
x = 53
add back the ≤
x ≤ 53
This means Eddies can travel up to 53 miles with his $15.

4 0

3 years ago

Draw a right triangle with side lengths of 3, 4, and 5 units. Please show a picture.

Arada [10]

Answer:

https://www.google.com/url?sa=i&source=imgres&cd=&ved=2ahUKEwig0N2PrePnAhVLQq0KHQsCAi0QjRx6BAgBEAQ&url=http%3A%2F%2Fmathworld.wolfram.com%2F345Triangle.html&psig=AOvVaw3V2l2h-p2cQ4XBgk2MthwI&ust=1582398823143518

Step-by-step explanation:

click it

7 0

2 years ago

Find the probability of at least 6 failures in 7 trials of a binomial experiment in which the probability of success in any one

oksano4ka [1.4K]

Answer:

$P(x \geq 6)=P(X=6)+P(X=7)$

And we can find the individual probabilities:

$P(X=6)=(7C6)(0.91)^6 (1-0.91)^{7-6}=0.358$

$P(X=7)=(7C7)(0.91)^7 (1-0.91)^{7-7}=0.517$

And replacing we got:

$P(x \geq 6)=P(X=6)+P(X=7)= 0.358+0.517=0.875$

Step-by-step explanation:

Previous concepts

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".

Solution to the problem

Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

$X \sim Binom(n=7, p=1-0.09=0.91)$

The probability associated to a failure would be p =1-0.09 = 0.91

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

$P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}$

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

$nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}$

And we want to find this probability:

$P(x \geq 6)=P(X=6)+P(X=7)$

And we can find the individual probabilities:

$P(X=6)=(7C6)(0.91)^6 (1-0.91)^{7-6}=0.358$

$P(X=7)=(7C7)(0.91)^7 (1-0.91)^{7-7}=0.517$

And replacing we got:

$P(x \geq 6)=P(X=6)+P(X=7)= 0.358+0.517=0.875$

6 0

3 years ago

Please help me with this!..

deff fn [24]

Answer:

300 times

Step-by-step explanation:

600 * 1/2 = 600/2

=300

5 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

2.<br><br>What is 0.679 x 10?

Tems11 [23]

Answer: 6.79

Step-by-step explanation:

Multiplying by 10 allows you to move the decimal to the right by one place value.

7 0

1 year ago