All categories

3 years ago

___________ is the ability of a product to satisfy a customer

Business

2 answers:

soldier1979 [14.2K]3 years ago

6 0

The answer to this question is: Quality

belka [17]3 years ago

6 0

Answer: Utility

Utility is the ability of a product to satisfy a customer.

Explanation:

Utility refers to the satisfaction, happiness or pleasure that a consumer derived or obtained from the consumption of a product or service. The utility of a product directly influence the demand for the product and the price of the product (good) or service. Utility varies from one customer to another and from time to time. A consumer might not derive the same utility from the consumption of the same product at different points in time.

You might be interested in

Achieving high product quality lowers operating costs because of the effect of quality on:___________.

denpristay [2]

Answer:

Option C, corporate-level planning, is the right answer.

Explanation:

Option C, “corporate-level planning” is the correct answer because it is the corporate planning according to which every employee has to work. If the quality of planning is good then the firm will produce higher output with lower operating cost and if the planning is not good or suitable then the firm can increase the productivity but operating cost may go very high. Therefore, option C is right.

5 0

3 years ago

Traditionally, department stores almost exclusively offered soft goods. But now, most department stores focus on selling both ha

Studentka2010 [4]

Answer:

False

Explanation:

Traditionally, department stores sold both soft goods and hard goods. But now, most department stores focus almost exclusively on soft goods.

Soft goods refers generally to clothing and other textiles like bedding and fabrics.

Hard goods refers to a broad range of products like appliances, furniture, tools, electronics, etc.

5 0

2 years ago

MaltHanks Inc., a leading American firm, starts its operations in China. It incurs a lot of additional costs in comparison to th

asambeis [7]

Answer: Liability of foreignness

Explanation: In simple words, the extra cost incurred by a company operating in a foreign country as compared to the local companies over there is called the liability of foreignness.

In the given case, the American company incurred extra cost in china due to their lack of local knowledge and discrimination from the locals.

Thus, from the above we can conclude that Malt hanks faced liability of foreignness.

5 0

3 years ago

The current (year 0) price of the shares of Company XYZ is $50. There are 1 million shares outstanding. Next year (year 1)’s div

otez555 [7]

Answer:

1. The dividend per share in year 2 would be $2.16.

The dividend per share in year 3 would be $2.3328

2. The market value of the firm is $50 million

3. The value of the firm next year after the payout is $ 54

Explanation:

1. In order to calculate the dividend per share in year 2 and the dividend per share in year 3 we would have to make the following calculation:

dividend per share in year 2=dividend per share in year 1*(1+Growth Rate)

dividend per share in year 1=$2

Growth Rate=Retention Ratio * ROE

Growth Rate=40% * 20%

Growth Rate=8%

Therefore, dividend per share in year 2=$2*(1+8%)

dividend per share in year 2=$2.16

dividend per share in year 3=dividend per share in year 2*(1+Growth Rate)

dividend per share in year 3=$2.16(1´8%)

dividend per share in year 3=$2.3328

2. In order to calculate the current market value of the firm we would have to make the following calculation:

market value of the firm=Currect Share Price * Number of outstanding shares

According to the given data:

Currect Share Price=$50

Number of outstanding shares=1 million shares

market value of the firm=$50*1 million shares

market value of the firm=$50 million

3. In order to calculate the value of the firm next year after the payout we would have to calculate first the rate of return as follows:

value of the firm =dividend per share in year 1/rate of return-growth rate

$50* Rate of Return - 4 = $2

Rate of Return = 6 / 50

Rate of Return =12%

Therefore, value of the firm next year after the payout=dividend per share in year 2/rate of return-growth rate

value of the firm next year after the payout=$2.16/0.12-0.08

value of the firm next year after the payout=$ 54

3 0

2 years ago

I need help with 9 and 10 please

sweet-ann [11.9K]

9. D) 73.50

8.4%*$875

Move the decimal place to multiply by a percent:

.084*875= $73.50

10. D) $15,917

(100 shares * $44.41/per share)+ (600 shares *$19.08 per share) + (.04* [600+100])

($4,441) + ($11,448)+ ($28)= $15.917

3 0

3 years ago