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Yuliya22 [10]
3 years ago
6

A trampoline has a rectangular jumping surface that is 10.3 feet long and 9.3 feet wide . What is the area of the jumping surfac

e
Mathematics
1 answer:
Andrei [34K]3 years ago
4 0
Area is equals length times (*) breath
L*b
10.3*9.3
=95.79l
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Alex was biking along a 48 mile trail. First half of the time he was biking twice as fast as the second half of the time. If he
nydimaria [60]

Answer:

The speed in the first part is 16 mph.

Step-by-step explanation:

The total distance is 48 miles. The total time is 4 hours.

In the second part of the trip, he was traveling at speed s for distance d for 2 hours.

In the first part of the trip he was traveling at twice the speed, or 2s, for distance 48 - d, for 2 hours.

speed = distance/time

distance = speed * time

First part of trip:

48 - d = 2s * 2

d + 4s = 48   Equation 1

Second part of the trip:

d = s * 2

d = 2s    Equation 2

Equations 1 and 2 form a system of equations in two unknowns, d and s.

d + 4s = 48

d = 2s

Substitute 2s for d in equation 1.

2s + 4s = 48

6s = 48

s = 8

The speed in the second part is 8 mph.

The speed in the first part is 2s = 2(8) = 16.

The speed in the first part is 16 mph.

Check:

d = 2s = 2(8) = 16

48 - d = 48 - 16 = 32

The second part is 16 miles. The first part is 32 miles.

16 miles at 8 mph takes 2 hours.

32 miles at 16 mph takes 2 hours.

2 hours + 2 hours = 4 hours.

Our answer is correct.

Answer: The speed in the first part is 16 mph.

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3 years ago
Find x. Round your answer to the nearest hundredth
Vladimir79 [104]

Answer:

5.86

Step-by-step explanation:

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2 years ago
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Drag the tiles to the correct boxes to complete the pairs.
Maurinko [17]

Answer:

skewed to the left is C

Step-by-step explanation:

thats all i know hope i helped?

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Question 5: prove that it’s =0
mamaluj [8]

Answer:

Proof in explanation.

Step-by-step explanation:

I'm going to attempt this by squeeze theorem.

We know that \cos(\frac{2}{x}) is a variable number between -1 and 1 (inclusive).

This means that -1 \le \cos(\frac{2}{x}) \le 1.

x^4 \ge 0 for all value x. So if we multiply all sides of our inequality by this, it will not effect the direction of the inequalities.

-x^4 \le x^4 \cos(\frac{2}{x}) \le x^4

By squeeze theorem, if  -x^4 \le x^4 \cos(\frac{2}{x}) \le x^4

and \lim_{x \rightarrow 0}-x^4=\lim_{x \rightarrow 0}x^4=L, then we can also conclude that \im_{x \rightarrow} x^4\cos(\frac{2}{x})=L.

So we can actually evaluate the "if" limits pretty easily since both are continuous  and exist at x=0.

\lim_{x \rightarrow 0}x^4=0^4=0

\lim_{x \rightarrow 0}-x^4=-0^4=-0=0.

We can finally conclude that \lim_{\rightarrow 0}x^4\cos(\frac{2}{x})=0 by squeeze theorem.

Some people call this sandwich theorem.

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3 years ago
Jerrilyn wrote the following argument to prove that
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Answer:

absolutely no idea if this is right but i put the first one

Step-by-step explanation:

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