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VLD [36.1K]
3 years ago
10

________ is the internal operation that arranges information resources to support business performance and outcomes

Business
1 answer:
Shkiper50 [21]3 years ago
7 0
Information management
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Firm A employs a high degree of operating leverage; Firm B takes a more conservative approach. Which of the following comparativ
Aneli [31]

Answer:

Statement B is correct.

Explanation:

High Operating Leverage represents higher fixed cost in comparison to variable cost, and thus that means the company will get its break even earlier or we can say with low units, but after break even profits will be higher.

As in the given case Firm A has higher Operating Leverage than Firm B, thus Firm A has lower Break even point but eventually its profit after reaching break even will grow higher.

Thus, Statement B is correct

4 0
3 years ago
Due to more emphasis on empowerment and more talented and better-educated lower-level management, span of control in organizatio
Firdavs [7]

Answer:

Narrowed

Explanation:

Span of control is the term now used more commonly in business management, particularly human resource management. Span of control refers to the number of subordinates a supervisor has.

Span of control has narrowed as the persons are capable of fullfill the requierements on any specific task without constant supervision

8 0
3 years ago
You have found an asset with an arithmetic average return of 14.60 percent and a geometric average return of 10.64 percent. Your
Ksju [112]

Answer:

return of the asset =  13.94%

return of the asset =  13.11%

return of the asset = 11.46 %

Explanation:

given data

average return = 14.60 percent

geometric average return = 10.64 percent

observation period = 25 years

solution

we get here return of the asset over year  by Blume formula that is

return of the asset = ( T- 1 ) ÷ ( N - 1)  × geometric average + ( N -T)  ÷ ( N - 1)  × arithmetic average   ..................1

here N is observation period and T is time

put value in equation 1

return of the asset = \frac{5-1}{25-1} *0.1064 + \frac{25-5}{25-1} * 0.1460

return of the asset = 0.1394 = 13.94%

and

return of the assets = \frac{10-1}{25-1} *0.1064 + \frac{25-10}{25-1} * 0.1460

return of the asset = 0.13115 = 13.11%

and

return of the assets = \frac{20-1}{25-1} *0.1064 + \frac{25-20}{25-1} * 0.1460

return of the asset = 0.11465 = 11.46 %

6 0
3 years ago
Inputs and outputs Megan's Performance Pizza is a small restaurant in San Francisco that sells gluten-free pizzas. Megan's very
sergiy2304 [10]
<h2>In the short run, these workers are <u>variable</u> inputs, and the ovens are <u>Fixed</u> inputs.</h2>

Explanation:

By analyzing the information, we can understand that, Megan can grow slowly and steadily because the constraint here is that, Megan has so many people to work but they are students and he cannot buy more than 2 oven's at present considering his financial background and the size of the kitchen.

So the wise work is that, he keeps changing the number of workers every time but the number of oven to be used every time is only 2.

So workers are variable (changing) and ovens are fixed.

7 0
3 years ago
West Corp. issued 20-year bonds two years ago at a coupon rate of 8.3 percent. The bonds make semiannual payments. If these bond
lora16 [44]

Answer:

Yield to Maturity (YTM) is 7.94 %.                      

Explanation:

Yield to Maturity (YTM) refers to internal rate of return that bond holder will earn if he purchased the bond today at the current market price and held it till maturity of the bond.

Yield to Maturity of the the bond = [Coupon payment+ (Future value of bond - Present value of bond / no. of Periods)] / [(Future value of bond + Present value of bond)/2] ---- (a)

Bond maturity period = 20 years

Coupon rate = 8.3 %

Par Value = 1000

No. of periods = 2 x 20 = 40 (semi- annual)

Coupon payment = 8.3 % x 1000 = 83 = 83/2 = 41.5 (Semi-annual)

Present value of bond = 104 percent of Par value = 104

Future value of bond = 1000

YTM = ?

Putting the values in equation (a),

Semi annual YTM = [41.5 + (1000-1040 / 40)] / [(1000 + 1040)/2]

Semi annual YTM = [41.5 + (-40/40) ] / [(1040)/2]

Semi annual YTM= [41.5 - 1] / 1020

Semi annualv YTM =  40.5 / 1020 = 0.0397

Hence, Annual yield to maturity = 0.0397 x 2 = 0.0794 or 7.94 %.

6 0
3 years ago
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