The answer to this question is B!
No you would not use the Pythagorean Theorem, You would take the two sides and multiply them together, and divide it by 2.
Answer:
I think its j
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
no figure 1 isn't similar to figure 2
Step-by-step explanation:
because its sides aren't the same numbers nor do the numbers correlate with the numbers in figure one its 2 different numbers
Answer:
jayfeather friend me
Step-by-step explanation:
1
8
=
3
(
3
−
6
)
1
8
=
9
−
1
8
2
Add
1
8
18
18
to both sides of the equation
3
Simplify
4
Divide both sides of the equation by the same term
5
Simplify
Solution
=
4
