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blagie [28]
3 years ago
6

Neeeddddddd help :/.......

Mathematics
1 answer:
Angelina_Jolie [31]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

a

Step-by-step explanation:

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Seema bought a new pair of jeans that were on sale the original price of jeans was $56 the store had marked them down by 25% and
ohaa [14]
C. 33.60

that would be because 25% of 56 is 14 so 56-14=42
and 20% of 42 is 8.40
so 42-8.4= 33.60

$33.60 is your answer
8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Of 20 >
attashe74 [19]

Answer: 1.5%

Step-by-step explanation:

The Pure Interest Rate refers to the rate in a theoretical market where there is no risk as economic conditions can be predicted with certainty.

Sadly, uncertainty will always exist but there are rates that are close enough to the Pure interest rate such as US Government Security rates.

The United States has never defaulted on a debt payment in the modern era and as such is known to offer the least risky rates in the world. The rate on US Securities can therefore be considered as close as possible to the pure interest rate.

Given the rates in the question, the Pure Interest rate would be the 20-year Treasury bond rate of 1.5%.

8 0
3 years ago
The price of a watch was increased by 20% to £162.<br>What was the price before the increase?​
Bas_tet [7]
The original price is 135
Step-by-step explanation:
Write equation. Let o be original price, r be rate of increase, P be the increased price. o+ro=P
Substitute values. Original price (o) is unknown, so that will stay as it is; we know that the increased price (P) is 162; we know that the rate of increase (r) is 20%, which in decimal form is 0.20 o+0.20o=162
Add like terms. o is the same as 1o. So 1+0.20 is 1.20. 1.20o=162
Isolate the variable (o). To isolate o, you need to divide both sides by 1.20. 1.20 divided by 1.20 is the same as 1. 162 divided by 1.20 is 135. o=135
Check your work. Plug in the values into the equation and check if it is correct: o+ro=P becomes (135)+(.20)(135)=162. That is simplified into 135+27=162, which is further simplified into 162=162
It’s correct, the answer is 135
3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
!!! Answer fasttttt plzzz!!!!!!! Will give 20 points and Brainlyest!!!! Which division problem does the number line below best i
aivan3 [116]

Answer:

10/2

Step-by-step explanation:

first 10/2=5

you divide 10 into 2 until you get 5 of such groups

5 0
3 years ago
The most common form of color blindness is an inability to distinguish red from green. However, this particular form of color bl
MaRussiya [10]

Answer:

(a) P(CBM) = 0.07

(b) P(not CBW) = 0.996

(c ) P(neither is color-blind) = 0.926

(d) P=(at least one is color-blind) = 0.074

Step-by-step explanation:

The correct data is  that Approximately 7% of American men and 0.4% of American women are red-green color-blind.

(a) Probability that he is red-green color-blind:

P(CBM) = 0.07

(b) Probability that she is NOT red-green color-blind:

P(not\ CBW) =1- P(CBW)\\P(not\ CBW) = 1 -0.004\\P(not\ CBW) =0.996

(c) Probability that neither are red-green color-blind

P(neither) = P(not\ CBW)*P(not\ CBM) \\P(neither) = 0.996 *(1-0.07)\\P(neither)=0.926

(d) Probability that at least one of them is red-green color-blind

P(at\ least\ one) = 1- P(neither) \\P(at\ least\ one) = 1-0.926\\P(at\ least\ one) = 0.074

7 0
4 years ago
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