1answer.
Ask question
Login Signup
Ask question
All categories
  • English
  • Mathematics
  • Social Studies
  • Business
  • History
  • Health
  • Geography
  • Biology
  • Physics
  • Chemistry
  • Computers and Technology
  • Arts
  • World Languages
  • Spanish
  • French
  • German
  • Advanced Placement (AP)
  • SAT
  • Medicine
  • Law
  • Engineering
Zepler [3.9K]
3 years ago
5

Cho tam giác ABC vuông tại A đường giao AH biếtAH=12cm BH=9cm.Tính diện tích tam giác ABC

Mathematics
1 answer:
Lostsunrise [7]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

AB^2 = HB^2 + AH^2 => AB = 15cm

Ta co cong thuc: 1/AH^2 = 1/AB^2 + 1/AC^2 => AC=20cm

Vay SABC= 1/2 .AB.AC = 1/2 .15.20=150cm^2

You might be interested in
What is the answer to (−2)³
svetlana [45]

(−2)³ = (-2)(-2)(-2)

Note that:

two negative numbers multiplied together results in a positive

one negative and one positive number multiplied results in a negative

Multiply:

(-2)(-2) = 4

4(-2) = -8

-8 is your answer

hope this helps

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A survey of 80 students found that 24 students both play Which of the following correctly repres
professor190 [17]

567

Step-by-step explanation:

6 0
3 years ago
The graph represents the height y, in meters, above the ground of a water balloon x seconds after it is dropped from a window.
Nezavi [6.7K]
The balloon is in the air for 3sThe max height is 44mThe max height occurs at x=0

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
DUE BY 11:59 PM!!<br><br>HELP GREATLY APPRECIATED!!​
aksik [14]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

1. There are only 4 numbers including 5 that follow the "five or more" requirment, and the probability of spinning it once is 4/8, or 1/2. (The total sections is 8) Then we multiply 1/2 and 1/2 together to get the "two times in a row" requirement done. (1/2)*(1/2)= 1/4 is the probability.

2. There are two values on the spinner that are a multiple of 3, 3 itself and 6. Again, the total amount of numbers/sections is 8, so the probability of spinning a multiple of three is 2/8 or 1/4. The probability of spinning an odd number is 4/8 or 1/2. (1/2)*(1/4)=1/8 is the probability.

3. The probability of spinning one odd number is 1/2, and so we multiply 1/2 by itself four times. (1/2)*(1/2)*(1/2)*(1/2)=1/16 is the probability.

4. There are 6 numbers greater than two on the number wheel not including two itself. So the probability of that is 6/8, or 3/4. Then we multiply 3/4 by itself 3 times as it asks. (3/4)*(3/4)*(3/4)*(3/4)=81/256 is the probability.

Note that I am not really sure about the answer myself, but I hope that this can help in some way. Good luck! :)

5 0
3 years ago
Hellppppp!!! please??
Wewaii [24]
X1 y4 x 6 and x 6 y 4
5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Other questions:
  • When x=5, which is x3?<br> a. 100<br> b.115<br> c.105<br> d.125
    7·2 answers
  • Please help !Suppose that the height in centimeters of a candle is a linear function of them out of time in hours it has been bu
    9·1 answer
  • Paul teaches math to five classes in sixth grade. He wants to measure the variation in the performances of students of each clas
    8·2 answers
  • It took edwardo 8 hours to drive frombuffalo NY, to New your city, a distance of about 400 miles find his average speed
    13·1 answer
  • Find the domain of the equations. do not solve​
    8·1 answer
  • Number 10 step by step :(
    10·1 answer
  • LOOK AT THE PICTURE or click on the file
    8·1 answer
  • Im toooo bad at math plz help
    7·2 answers
  • Question<br> The formula for simple interest is I=Prt.<br> Solve the formula for t.
    9·1 answer
  • Betty is having invitations printed for a holiday party. It costs $3.90 to set up the printing machine and $2.44 per invitation.
    13·1 answer
Add answer
Login
Not registered? Fast signup
Signup
Login Signup
Ask question!