Answer:
Debit to bad debt expense for $3,648
Explanation:
This is because the company needs to show the total amount in the Allowance for doubtful accounts as credit balance. It means that if for instance the balance today is $1,057 you'll need a new entry to adjust the balance with the bad debt.
It means that the entry must be a debit in bad debt expense for $3,648 while the corresponding credit goes to allowance for doubtful accounts.
Answer:
I would pay up to 81.52 dollars for the share that way I will get a 12% return at least
Explanation:
We need to calcualte the present value of the cash flow of each year using the formula for present value of a lump sum:
Dividends Present Value
1st year 3.00 2.678571429 *1
2nd year 4.25 3.38807398 *2
3rd year 106.00* 75.44870627 *3
<em>Value of the share at 12% discount rate 81.51535168</em>
*100 dollars from the sale plus 6 dollars of dividends
*1
Div: 3.00
time: 1
rate: 0.12
PV 2.678571429
*2
Dividends 4.25
time 2.00
rate 0.12000
PV 3.3881
*3
Maturity 106.00
time 3.00
rate 0.12000
PV 75.4487
Answer:
E
Explanation:
has no interest in whether the euro grows stronger or weaker versus the Brazilian real unless its chief competitors are other companies located in countries whose currency is also the euro.
Answer:
PV = PMT [(1 - (1 / (1 + r)ⁿ)) / r]
Where:
PV = The present value of the annuity
PMT = The amount of each annuity payment
r = The interest rate
n = The number of periods over which payments are to be made
PV = PMT [(1 - (1 / (1 + r)ⁿ)) / r]
= 1000 [(1 - (1 / (1 + 0.0083)²⁴)) / 0.0083]
= 1000 [(1 - (1 / 1.2194)) / 0.0083]
= 1000 [(1 - 0.8201) / 0.0083]
= 1000 [0.1799 / 0.0083]
= 1000 * 21.6747
PV = $ 21,674.70
Explanation:
Since the annuity is compounded monthly
r = 10% / 12 = 0.83%
n = 24
