Assuming that you wanted to know how to journal this, it would be :
Dec. 31
Debit Credit
Income Summary $ 188,000
Retained Earning $ 188,000
Answer: $329.75
Explanation:
The one year subscription is $40 per year. It is estimated that the average age of current subscribers is 38 and they will leave on average to 78. This means that they will leave for,
= 78 - 38
= 40 years
Evans Ltd average interest rate on long-term debt is 12% so this means that we can use that 12% as a discount rate for the cash-flow expected.
I have attached a Present Value Interest Factor of an Annuity table to this question. It helps calculate annuities faster.
The above can be treated as an annuity because the $40 is constant every year.
The present value of the $40 over 40 years can be calculated by,
= $40 * present value Interest Factor of an Annuity for 40 years at 12% (look at the table for where 40 years on the y axis intersects with 12% on the x axis)
= $40 * 8.2438 (this is the figure when it is not rounded off to 3 dp)
= $329.752
= $329.75
This shows that the lifetime flat fee of $480 is more profitable for Evans Ltd as opposed to the yearly subscription. They should therefore try to sell more of the lifetime contract with the flat fee.
Answer:
A) Year 1 cost of goods sold
B) Year 2 cost of goods sold
D) Year 2 beginning inventory
Explanation:
A) Year 1 expense of merchandise sold : The Current year cost of Goods Sold is processed by deducting finishing stock from Opening Inventory and Purchases made during the year. So in the event that the completion stock isn't right, at that point the result of above calculation will not be right so the Year 1 expense of merchandise sold for example (Current year cost of Goods Sold) will be inaccurate.
D) Year 2 starting stock: year 2 starting stock is equivalent to year 1 completion stock. So on the off chance that off-base stock estimation is made at end of earlier year, at that point current year opening worth will be carried on as off-base.
B) Year 2 expense of merchandise sold: The explanation is same as ans q(i.e. Year 1 expense of merchandise sold) as off-base convey forward opening stock worth will bring about wrong calculation of cost of products sold for year 2.
Answer:
Debit Inventory $40,600
Credit Cash account $40,600
Being entries to recognize the cost of inventory
Explanation:
The initial recognition of inventory is to be done including all the cost incurred in bring inventory to the place of use or storage. These includes freight and the cost of the item. When inventory is purchased on account, entries required are Debit Inventory, credit account payable. Where cash is paid, the debit is same but the credit entry is posted to the cash account.
Hence total cost incurred (which is the cost of inventory)
= $40,000 + $600
= $40,600
Answer:
d.total factory overhead cost variance.
Explanation:
In manufacturing accounting, at the beginning of the period, manufacturing overheads (i.e. costs other than Direct Material and Direct Labor) has been applied to Work-in-process using a predetermined overhead rate. At the end of the period, if the manufacturing overhead account shows a debit balance, that signifies that overhead has been under-applied (i.e. the manufacturing overhead cost applied to work in process is <u>less </u>than the actual manufacturing overhead cost for the period), and contrariwise if the manufacturing overhead account shows a credit balance, it means the overhead is over-applied (i.e. the manufacturing overhead cost applied to work in process is <u>more </u>than the actual manufacturing overhead cost for the period). In any case this balance warrants an adjustment to close out the books, by transferring it to the cost of goods sold account.
