It should increase but I’m between stays the same or increase, I’m not sure in a 100% sorry...
Answer:
Mean = 20
Variance = 16
Step-by-step explanation:
Solution:-
- Let X be the number of customers paying with a debit card. X has the binomial distribution with n = 100 trials and success probability p = 0.2
- In general, if X has the binomial distribution with (n) trials and a success probability of (p) then:
P[X = x] = n!/(x!(n-x)!) * p^x * (1-p)^(n-x)
for values of x = 0, 1, 2, ..., n
P[X = x] = 0 for any other value of x.
- The probability mass function is derived by looking at the number of combination of x objects chosen from n objects and then a total of x success and n - x failures.
- Or, in other words, the binomial is the sum of n independent and identically distributed Bernoulli trials.
X ~ Binomial( n = 100 , p = 0.2 )
- The mean of the binomial distribution is n * p = 20
- The variance of the binomial distribution is n * p * (1 - p) = 16
idk if you seen this but I try this
Answer:
20
Step-by-step explanation:
For the sake of the problem, let's make female workers "x" and male workers "y".
x+y<40 This equation shows that the total number of workers has a max of 40.
30x+20y<1,000 This equation shows that the total cost the manager pays ($30 to each woman, $20 to each man) has a max of $1,000.
Now you can solve for x and y.
X+y<40
-y -y
X<-y+40
Substitute -y+40 in for X in the second equation
30(-y+40)+20y<1,000
-30y+1200+20y<1,000 Distribute
-10y+1,200<1,000 Combine like terms
-10y<-200 Subtract 1,200
y>20 Divide by -10; flip the sign
Since y>20, and y=male workers, you now know that the minimum
number of male workers he should send is 20
Answer:
False
Step-by-step explanation:
12/4=3
3 does not equal 12 1/4
