Answer:
The effective purchasing purchasing power of the initial loan of $6,200,000 when the firm repays is $3,444,444
If the original purchasing power of the $6,200,000 is to be maintained the firm must repay $ 11,160,000
Explanation:
In computing the figures above, I adhered strictly to the hints given in the question the purchasing of the original should be calculated by dividing the original amount by 1 plus cumulative inflation rate of 80% and that the amount should be multiplied by 1 plus cumulative inflation rate to arrive the amount needed as repayment to maintain the purchasing of the initial loan amount.
Find attached for detailed computations
Answer:
$11,000 unfavorable
Explanation:
Calculation to determine the company's fixed-overhead volume variance would be:
Actual fixed overhead incurred ($791,000)
Less Budgeted fixed overhead ($780,000)
Fixed-overhead volume variance $11,000 unfavorable
Therefore the company's fixed-overhead volume variance would be: $11,000 unfavorable
Answer and Explanation:
1. Interest Revenue $23,000
Sales Revenue $510,000
To Income Summary $533000
(Being closing of revenues accounts are closed)
2. Income Summary $453,000
To Sales returns $20,000
To Sales Discounts $7,000
To Cost Of goods sold $310,000
To Freight out $2,000
To Advertise Exp $15,000
To Interest Exp $19,000
To Salaries & Wages $55,000
To Utility $18,000
To Depreciation $7,000
(Being closing of expenses accounts are closed)
3. Income Summary $80,000
To Retained Earning $80,000
(Being profit is recorded)
4. Retained Earning $30,000
To Dividends $30,000
(Being closing of dividend is recorded)
True. One reason to use a predetermined overhead rate is to eliminate the effect of seasonal factors.
<h3>What is a predetermined overhead rate?</h3>
This is the term that is used to refer to the allocation rate that is used in the determination of the estimated cost of the manufacturing overhead. It is used to show in either the order of the product or that of the job.
Hence based on this question we can say that it is true because the reason to use a predetermined overhead rate is to eliminate the effect of seasonal factors.
Read more on overhead rate here: brainly.com/question/13312583
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Answer:
Break-even point in units= 1,500
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Selling price= $600
Unitary variable cost= $420
Fixed cost= $270,000
<u>To calculate the break-even point in units, we need to use the following formula:</u>
Break-even point in units= fixed costs/ contribution margin per unit
Break-even point in units= 270,000 / (600 - 420)
Break-even point in units= 1,500
