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Illusion [34]
3 years ago
12

Will mark brainliest. Please answer:

Mathematics
1 answer:
wlad13 [49]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

1. (-1,-6)

2. (6,2)

Step-by-step explanation:

Graph each inequality. Test a point in each and shade appropriately. The darkest shaded part is a solution to the set. If the points lie within this region, they are solutions. Please note they cannot land in on of the lighter shade regions or on the lines unless equal to. This means only points on the red line in the darker shaded regions are solutions.

1. (-1,-6)

2. (6,2)

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Please help!!!! Your helping would be great!​
kozerog [31]

They are not equivalent.


Explanation:


2:9 and 4:12

What you would do to find out if they’re equivalent is simplify them to see if they’re the same simplified

2:9 simplified is 2:9 and 4:12 simplified is 2:6
5 0
3 years ago
WILL MARK FOR BRAINIEST!!!!<br> Find the area of the composite shape.
olganol [36]
A=bh
a=bh/2

6x10=60

7x6=42/2=21

Add together: 60+21=81

81 is your final answer
7 0
3 years ago
Which of the following are accepted without proof in a logical system? A.Axioms B.Theorems C.Postulates D.Common Notions
Lera25 [3.4K]
<span>C.Postulates

Postulates are </span><span>statements accepted as true for the purposes of argument or scientific investigation</span>
6 0
4 years ago
Activity 5: COMPARE US! Write an inequality relating the given pair of angles or segment measures. Complete each statement by ch
Shalnov [3]

Answer:

1. LM < PN

2. AD < DC

3. m<CAB < m<CBA

4. m<1 = m<2

Step-by-step explanation:

Recall: an angle measure is relative to the length of the opposite side. That is, the longer the side opposite to an angle, the larger the measure of that angle and vice versa.

1. LM is opposite to <LNM,

PN is opposite to <NLP

m<LNM is less than m<NLP, therefore,

LM < PN

2. AD is opposite to <ABD

DC is opposite to <DBC

m<ABD is less than m<DBC, therefore,

AD < DC

3. m<CAB is opposite to CB

m<CBA is opposite to CA

CB is less than CA, therefore,

m<CAB < m<CBA

4. The side opposite to <1 is congruent to the side opposite to <2.

Therefore,

m<1 = m<2

3 0
3 years ago
12.) Last week on
Yuri [45]

Answer:

75 feet long

Step-by-step explanation:

3 0
3 years ago
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